CompTIA PK0-005 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA PK0-005 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 341:

  Which of the following aspects are true of waterfall as compared to agile? (Select two).

  A. Waterfall is composed of smaller teams working together
  B. Waterfall reinforces customer collaboration
  C. In waterfall, solution validation occurs later in the development cycle.
  D. In waterfall, working software is more of a focus than comprehensive documentation.
  E. Waterfall is less tolerant to changes in scope.
  F. Waterfall is made up of sprints
  C. In waterfall, solution validation occurs later in the development cycle.
  E. Waterfall is less tolerant to changes in scope.

  ---

  Explanation

• Question 342:

  A project has fallen behind schedule. Upon investigation, the project manager determines that team members have implemented requirements relayed via impromptu hallway meetings with the client. Which of the following should the project manager do to resolve this issue?

  A. Update the scope management plan.
  B. Modify the project baselines.
  C. Implement change control management.
  D. Inform the stakeholders of the issue.
  D. Inform the stakeholders of the issue.

  ---

  Explanation

• Question 343:

  Which of the following contract types presents the most risk for the buyer?

  A. Cost-plus percentage of cost
  B. Cost-plus-incentive fee
  C. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
  D. Firm fixed-price
  A. Cost-plus percentage of cost

  ---

  Explanation

  The buyer faces the most risk under a cost-plus percentage of cost (CPPC) contract because the seller's fee is a percentage of actual costs. That structure creates a perverse incentive: if costs rise, the seller's profit rises too--so the buyer has the greatest exposure to overruns and the weakest built-in cost-control motivation on the seller side. Procurement guidance commonly flags CPPC as especially risky for buyers for exactly this reason.

  By comparison, cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF) still leaves the buyer paying allowable costs, but the seller's fee is fixed (less incentive to inflate costs). Cost-plus-incentive fee (CPIF) ties part of the fee to performance/ cost targets, sharing risk and encouraging cost control. Finally, firm fixed-price (FFP) places the cost overrun risk primarily on the seller, because the price is set unless scope changes. PMI's contract overview notes fixed- price provides the buyer defined cost (assuming scope is well-defined), which reduces buyer risk relative to cost-reimbursable models.

  Therefore, among the options, CPPC is the clearest "highest buyer risk" contract type.

• Question 344:

  Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program?

  A. Residual risk
  B. Regulatory requirements
  C. Risk tolerance
  D. Control objectives
  D. Control objectives

  ---

  Explanation

  Control objectives are the desired outcomes or goals of implementing security controls to mitigate risks and protect information assets. Control objectives should be the primary basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program, as they align with the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the organization and its stakeholders. Metrics based on control objectives can help to evaluate the performance, efficiency, and maturity of the security program, and to identify gaps, issues, and areas for improvement. The other options are not correct because:

  Residual risk is the remaining risk after applying security controls. Residual risk is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a result of measuring the effectiveness of security controls. Residual risk should be monitored and reported, but it does not define the desired outcomes or goals of the security program.

  Regulatory requirements are the external standards, laws, and regulations that the organization must comply with to avoid legal or financial penalties. Regulatory requirements are not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a constraint or a driver for the security program. Metrics based on regulatory requirements can help to demonstrate compliance, but they may not reflect the actual effectiveness or efficiency of the security program.

  Risk tolerance is the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or bear. Risk tolerance is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a factor or an input for the security program. Metrics based on risk tolerance can help to prioritize and allocate resources, but they may not measure the actual outcomes or goals of the security program.

  References: Key Performance Indicators for Security Governance, Part 1; 14 Cybersecurity Metrics + KPIs You Must Track in 2023; KPIs in Information Security: The 10 Most Important Security Metrics; Why metrics are crucial to proving cybersecurity programs' value; Implementing and Maintaining Security Program Metrics

• Question 345:

  A PM received feedback from the project sponsor that the resources involved in the project are unsure of their daily activities. Which of the following is the MOST effective step for the PM to take to ensure clarity within the team?

  A. Create a list of tasks and share it with the team.
  B. Resend the scope of work to the team.
  C. Review the Gantt chart weekly with the team.
  D. Have the project sponsor meet with the team.
  C. Review the Gantt chart weekly with the team.

  ---

  Explanation

  Reviewing the Gantt chart weekly with the team would be the most effective step for the project manager to take to ensure clarity within the team after receiving feedback from the project sponsor that the resources involved in the project are unsure of their daily activities. A Gantt chart is a graphical tool that shows the schedule of a project, including the start and end dates, durations, dependencies, milestones, and progress of each task or activity. Reviewing the Gantt chart weekly with the team can help to clarify their roles and responsibilities, assign tasks and deadlines, track and report their status and performance, identify and resolve any issues or risks, and keep them aligned and engaged with the project goals.

• Question 346:

  A project manager is reviewing quality planning techniques.

  Which of the following involves comparing results of similar activities?

  A. Performing a cost-benefit analysis
  B. Defining metrics
  C. Benchmarking
  D. Brainstorming
  C. Benchmarking

  ---

  Explanation

  Benchmarking is a quality technique that compares results, processes, or best practices from similar activities or organizations. It helps set realistic performance standards and identify improvement opportunities. Unlike cost-benefit analysis (financial), benchmarking focuses on performance comparison. CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 - Quality Planning Techniques; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Operations & Support domain.

• Question 347:

  A project manager is assigned to an ongoing project. Which of the following is the FIRST document the protect manager should review?

  A. Project schedule
  B. Action items
  C. Project charter
  D. Communication plan
  A. Project schedule

  ---

  Explanation

• Question 348:

  A project came in under budget, so the senior management team celebrated by spending the unused budget on shirts for team members and a cake for the entire company.

  In which of the following project phases did this take place?

  A. Planning
  B. Closing
  C. Execution
  D. Initiation
  B. Closing

• Question 349:

  As a part of a project, structured cabling activities have been outsourced to another company. The agreement is that work will take six weeks to complete and will be performed at different locations. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Select two).

  A. Purchase the materials.
  B. Assign the resources.
  C. Accept delays in the work.
  D. Approve the deliverables.
  E. Monitor the performance.
  F. Negotiate with the vendors.
  D. Approve the deliverables.
  E. Monitor the performance.

  ---

  Explanation

  The project manager should approve the deliverables and monitor the performance of the outsourced structured cabling activities. These are the responsibilities of the project manager when dealing with external vendors or contractors, as they ensure that the quality standards, scope, schedule, and budget are met according to the contract terms and the project plan. The project manager should also communicate regularly with the vendor and provide feedback and guidance as needed. The other options are not correct because: Purchasing the materials is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only verify that the materials are suitable and available for the project. Assigning the resources is not the responsibility of the project manager, but the vendor who is performing the structured cabling activities. The project manager should only ensure that the vendor has the adequate and qualified resources to complete the work. Accepting delays in the work is not a good practice for the project manager, as it can negatively affect the project schedule, scope, and quality. The project manager should proactively identify and manage the risks and issues that may cause delays, and implement contingency plans or corrective actions if necessary. Negotiating with the vendors is not a task that the project manager should do during the execution of the structured cabling activities, as it should have been done during the planning and procurement phases of the project. The project manager should only adhere to the contract terms and conditions that have been agreed upon with the vendor, and only renegotiate if there are significant changes or disputes that require it.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Planning Projects, Part 4 (Procurement and Communication), pages 243-260; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Project Planning, Objective

  2.5: Given a scenario, plan procurement for a project; Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, execute and monitor project tasks using traditional methodologies.

• Question 350:

  Testing has been completed, and the new system is loaded in production and ready to be activated. Which of the following needs approval from the project sponsor?

  A. Project charter
  B. Deployment plan
  C. Business case
  D. Release schedule
  D. Release schedule