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BUSINESS-ENVIRONMENT-AND-CONCEPTS Online Practice Questions

Certified Public Accountant (Business Environment amd Concepts)

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Question 1 Single choice

In which stage of supply chain management will integration move external to the firm to involve those outside the firm who are able to work as a unified team in an attempt to obtain slow, profitable growth?

  1. A

    Cross-functional teams.

  2. B

    Integrated enterprise.

  3. C

    Extended supply chain.

  4. D

    Supply chain communities.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Choice "c" is correct. In the extended supply chain stage of supply chain management, integration moves external to the firm to involve those outside the firm who are able to work as a unified team in an attempt to
obtain slow, profitable growth.
Choice "a" is incorrect. In the cross-functional teams stage of supply chain management, the firm's management will turn its attention to consolidation of the various departments that make up operations in order to solve the firm's problems, and the focus will be on customer service.
Choice "b" is incorrect. In the integrated enterprise stage of supply chain management, the firm's management will move away from simple consolidation of its operations to an internally-integrated supply chain, which all work together towards the main business issue of the cost of customer service.
Choice "d" is incorrect. In the supply chain communities stage of supply chain management, the extended supply chain forms a single competitive entity with a synchronized supply chain and a complex system of networks.

Question 2 Single choice

The segment margin of an investment center after deducting the imputed interest on the assets used by the investment center is known as:

  1. A

    Return on investment.

  2. B

    Residual income.

  3. C

    Operating income.

  4. D

    Return on assets.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B

Explanation

Choice "b" is correct. Residual income is the segment margin of an investment center after deducting the imputed interest (hurdle rate) on the assets used by the investment center.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Return on investment is the ratio of income earned to the investment.
Choice "c" is incorrect. Operating income is not well defined, but is generally the income from operations for the entire organization, not a segment.
Choice "d" is incorrect. Return on assets is the ratio of income produced to assets employed (not the amount invested).

Question 3 Single choice

The kinked demand curve is associated with:

  1. A

    The analysis of agricultural markets.

  2. B

    The analysis of monopolistic competition.

  3. C

    The analysis of pure competition.

  4. D

    The analysis of oligopoly.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Choice "d" is correct. The demand curve for any individual oligopolist is kinked sharply downward. This occurs because, in oligopoly market conditions, the other firms in the market will match any price reduction so they do not lose market share but will not match any price increase of an individual firm.
Therefore, for the individual firm attempting to raise its prices beyond equilibrium, consumers will quickly buy from other firms in the market and demand will drop off sharply creating a kinked demand curve.
Choices "a", "b", and "c" are incorrect, per the above Explanation.

Question 4 Single choice

The measure most often used to compare standards of living across countries or across time is:

  1. A

    Government spending.

  2. B

    Real GDP.

  3. C

    Real consumption expenditures.

  4. D

    Real GDP per capita.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Choice "d" is correct. Real GDP per capita is real GDP divided by population. Real GDP per capita is typically used to compare standards of living across countries or across time. By dividing real GDP by population, this measure adjusts for differences in the size of countries and for differences in population over time.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Government spending is not a measure of the standard of living of a country.
Choice "b" is incorrect. Countries with larger populations tend to have higher levels of real GDP. This however does not mean they have a higher standard of living. To adjust for differences in population, real GDP per capita is typically used to compare standards of living, not real GDP.
Choice "c" is incorrect. Real consumption expenditures are only a part of real GDP and thus do not measure all economic activity. Furthermore, real consumption expenditures do not adjust for differences in population. It is therefore not used as a measure of the standard of living.

Question 5 Single choice

CyberAge outlet, a relatively new store, is a cafe that offers customers the opportunity to browse the Internet or play computer games at their tables while they drink coffee. The customer pays a fee based on the amount of time spent signed on to the computer. The store also sells books, tee shirts, and computer accessories. CyberAge has been paying all of its bills on the last day of the payment period, thus forfeiting all supplier discounts. Shown below are data on CyberAge's two major vendors, including average monthly purchases and credit terms.

Should CyberAge use trade credit and continue paying at the end of the credit period?

  1. A

    No, if the cost of alternative short-term financing is more.

  2. B

    Yes, if the firm's weighted average cost of capital is equal to its weighted average trade credit.

  3. C

    No, if the cost of alternative long-term financing is more.

  4. D

    Yes, if the cost of alternative short-term financing is more.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Choice "d" is correct. Yes, CyberAge should use trade credit and continue paying at the end of the credit period, if the cost of alternative short-term financing is more.
Choices "a", "b", and "c" are incorrect, per the above Explanation.

Question 6 Single choice

Long Lake Golf Course has raised green fees to a nine-hole game due to an increase in demand.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. A

    The regular weekday and weekend demand is inelastic.

  2. B

    The regular weekday and weekend demand is elastic.

  3. C

    The senior citizen and weekend demand is inelastic.

  4. D

    The senior citizen demand is elastic and weekend demand is inelastic.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Choice "d" is correct. Demand is elastic if a decline in price (P) results in an increase in total revenue (TR);
or if an increase in P results in a decline in TR. On the other hand, if demand is inelastic, a decline in P will result in a decline in TR or an increase in P will result in an increase in TR.
First, the total revenues at both the new and the previous rate must be computed. The (new or previous) rate* average games played (AGP) = the total revenue. As a result, TR at the previous rate (PR) is 800 for regular weekday (RW), 900 for senior citizen (SC), and 3315 for the weekend (WE). TR at the new rate (NR) is 770 for RW, 656 for SC, and 4460 for WE.
So, demand for RW and SC is elastic because the increase in P results in a decline in total revenue. The demand for WE is inelastic because the increase in P results in an increase in TR.
As a result, choices "a", "b", and "c" are incorrect.
Note: if TR remains constant after a change in P, the demand is unit elastic.

Question 7 Single choice

When does competition not become an even stronger force impacting the profitability of a firm?

  1. A

    The market consists of several equal-sized firms.

  2. B

    Customers do not have strong brand preferences.

  3. C

    The market is fast-growing.

  4. D

    The costs of exiting the market exceed the costs of continuing to operate.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Choice "c" is correct, as it is not a factor that would cause market competitiveness to be even stronger.
Choices "a", "b", and "d" are incorrect because they are all reasons that competition becomes an even stronger force that impacts the firm's profitability. The following are situations that would cause competition to be an even stronger force impacting the profitability of a firm: ?The market is not growing fast.
?There are several equal-sized firms in the market.
?Customers do not have strong brand preferences.
?The costs of exiting the market exceed the costs of continuing to operate.
?Some firms profit from making certain moves to increase market share.
?The various firms in the market use different types of strategic plans.

Question 8 Single choice

Government price regulations in competitive markets that set maximum or ceiling prices below the equilibrium price will in the short run:

  1. A

    Cause demand to increase.

  2. B

    Cause supply to increase.

  3. C

    Create shortages of that product.

  4. D

    Produce a surplus of the product.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Choice "c" is correct. Government price regulations in competitive markets that set maximum or ceiling prices below the equilibrium price will create shortages of that product in the short run because quantity supplied will be less than quantity demanded at that price.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Quantity demand will increase at the lower price.
Choice "b" is incorrect. Quantity supplied will decrease at the lower price.
Choice "d" is incorrect. A price set below the market's equilibrium price causes shortages, not surpluses, per the graph above.

Question 9 Single choice

For capital budgeting purposes, management would select a high hurdle rate of return for certain projects because management:

  1. A

    Wants to use equity funding exclusively.

  2. B

    Believes bank loans are riskier than capital investments.

  3. C

    Believes capital investment proposals involve average risk.

  4. D

    Wants to factor risk into its consideration of projects.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Choice "d" is correct. Management would select a high hurdle rate for certain projects to factor risk into its consideration of projects. The higher hurdle rate discounts future cash flows more, creating a smaller present value. By "devaluing" the cash flows of certain projects, risk has been compensated for.
Choices "a" and "b" are incorrect. The method and cost of funding are independent of the hurdle rate for screening investments.
Choice "c" is incorrect. If capital investment proposals involve average risk, no adjustment upward is needed for risk.

Question 10 Single choice

Under the Revised Model Business Corporation Act, which of the following must be contained in a corporation's articles of incorporation?

  1. A

    Quorum voting requirements.

  2. B

    Names of stockholders.

  3. C

    Provisions for issuance of par and nonpar shares.

  4. D

    The number of shares the corporation is authorized to issue.

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Explanation

Choice "d" is correct. The articles must set out the corporation's authorized shares.
Choice "a" is incorrect. Quorum requirements, if stated at all, usually are in the bylaws; they need not be included in the articles of incorporation.
Choice "b" is incorrect. The articles need not include the names of stockholders.
Choice "c" is incorrect. The RMBCA has eliminated the concept of par value and so does not have a requirement that par value be established in the articles.