350-029 Exam Details

  • Exam Code
    :350-029
  • Exam Name
    :CCIE Service Provider written
  • Certification
    :Cisco Certifications
  • Vendor
    :Cisco
  • Total Questions
    :520 Q&As
  • Last Updated
    :Dec 14, 2021

Cisco 350-029 Online Questions & Answers

  • Question 91:

    Two customers have routers that run OSPF and belong to the same OSPF area. These two routers are connected by an MPLS backbone and by a low-bandwidth point-to-point link (used as a backup link). Which two minimum configurations are required to connect these two routers? (Choose two.)

    A. site-of-origin
    B. sham-link
    C. domain tag
    D. down bit
    E. link cost
    F. virtual-link

  • Question 92:

    Which two statements about Layer 3 MPLS VPN are true? (Choose two.)

    A. The virtual routing and forwarding table is separate from the global routing table that exists on PE routers. Routes are injected into the VRF from the CE-PE routing protocols for that VRF and any MP- BGP announcements that match the defined VRF RTs.
    B. Multiprotocol Border Gateway Protocol is run between PE and CE routers to exchange customer prefixes in a VPNv4 format.
    C. A customer edge router peers at Layer 3 to the provider edge. The PE-CE interface runs either a dynamic routing protocol (eBGP, RIPv2, EIGRP, OSPF) or a static routing protocol (Static, Connected).
    D. VPNv4 address is the combination of the RT and customer IPv4 prefix. These VPNv4 prefixes are passed in MP-BGP.

  • Question 93:

    Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose two.)

    A. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.
    B. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.
    C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router becoming DIS.
    D. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a brodcast network.
    E. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.
    F. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC address becomes the DIS.

  • Question 94:

    What is the effect of changing DMT interleaved delay from 3 milliseconds to 15 milliseconds?

    A. Latency remains the same, but throughput is decreased.
    B. Latency remains the same, but error correction effectives may also be reduced.
    C. Latency is increased, but faster error correction occurs.
    D. Fewer ATM PVCs can be provisioned on DSL line.

  • Question 95:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    A client is unable to receive traffic from multicast streamer (R5) on 234.1.1.1, even though multicast routing is established in the network. Which statement describes how to resolve this issue?

    A. IGMP must be enabled for the client.
    B. R4 must be the DR on the R4-R6 segment.
    C. RP announcements have no multicast routing table entry.
    D. The RP must be reachable via Fa0/0.
    E. A static mroute must be configured to point to RP via Fa0/1 on R4.

  • Question 96:

    What are the differences between LLQ and CBWFQ? (Choose two.)

    A. LLQ priority queue bandwidth is policed with a congestion aware policer.
    B. With LLQ, bandwidth allocations for the priority queue and all the CBWFQ queues are configured using the priority command.
    C. LLQ does not support WFQ on the default traffic class (class-default).
    D. LLQ supports the addition of strict priority queuing.
    E. LLQ is configured using MQC and CBWFQ is configured using the fair-queue command.

  • Question 97:

    Select the three best answers which best describe Private Network-to Network Interface (PNNI) in an ATM network (Choose three.)

    A. It is the Routing protocol used between ATM switches
    B. PNNI uses the same Dijsktra algorithm for SPF calculation
    C. PNNI and OSPF use the same Database to make cohesive decision for packet forwarding
    D. PNNI measures line capacities and delays in addition to simple cost metrics

  • Question 98:

    Which statement about OSPF ASBR summary LSA is true?

    A. It is generated by an ASBR and indicates the reachability to an ABR located in another area.
    B. It is generated by ABR and indicates the reachability to an ASBR located in another AS.
    C. It is generated by ABR and indicates reachability to itself.
    D. It is generated by ABR and indicates the reachability to an ASBR located in another area.
    E. It is generated by an ASBR and indicates the reachability to an ABR.

  • Question 99:

    R3 and R4 are Route-Reflectors and there is an iBGP session between them, there is NO iBGP session between R1 and R2. For an External Route from CE-2 in R2 to reach R1, which two statements are true?

    A. R1, R3 and R4 establish full mesh iBGP sessions, R2, R3 and R4 establish full mesh iBGP sessions.
    B. R1 acts as a Route-Reflector client to R3, R2 acts as a Route-Reflector client to R4.
    C. R1 acts as a Route-Reflector client to R4, R4 acts as a Route-Reflector client to R3, R2 acts as a Route-Reflector client to R3.
    D. CE-2 establishes multi-hop E-BGP sessions with R3 and R4.

  • Question 100:

    Which two statements best describe the functionality of the BGP graceful restart capability? (Choose two.)

    A. The peer router sends an end-of RIB message to the restarting router.
    B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing table.
    C. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.
    D. The router establishes BGP sessions with other routers and relearns the BGP routes from other routers that are also capable of graceful restart. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers. When the neighboring routers send end-of-RIB messages to indicate that they are done sending updates, the restarting router starts sending its own updates.
    E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires.

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