CompTIA PK0-005 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA PK0-005 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 221:

  A project manager has just finished overseeing the implementation of a new, self-service benefits enrollment system. Many employees, however, are calling the human resources team for assistance instead of using the self-service system.

  Which of the following should the project manager have done as part of the execution plan?

  A. Establish a minimally viable product.
  B. Prepare new knowledge base documentation.
  C. Update the project baseline and schedule.
  D. Periodically review vendor performance.
  B. Prepare new knowledge base documentation.

• Question 222:

  During the execution of production for a bike, a PM was hired. One month later, the PM has been receiving multiple project report requests from stakeholders.

  Which of the following should the PM do FIRST?

  A. Discuss the requests with the sponsor.
  B. Prepare and send the information.
  C. Assign this task to the project team.
  D. Review the communication plan.
  D. Review the communication plan.

• Question 223:

  After new capabilities were deployed in a system, issues with preexisting capabilities were reported. Which of the following testing cycles should be used to prevent this issue?

  A. Performance testing
  B. User acceptance testing
  C. Stress testing
  D. Unit testing
  D. Unit testing

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  Explanation

  Unit testing is a testing technique that verifies the functionality and quality of individual units or components of software, such as modules, classes, functions, etc. Unit testing can help prevent issues with preexisting capabilities by detecting

  and fixing errors at an early stage of development, before they affect the integration and system testing. Unit testing can also ensure that new capabilities do not break or interfere with the existing ones, by checking the compatibility and

  dependencies of the units. Unit testing can be performed by developers using tools and frameworks that automate the process and generate reports.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Project Quality Management; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Execute quality management activities.

• Question 224:

  A project manager is assigned to a project that has contracted with vendors. Which of the following actions should the project manager most frequently take? (Select two).

  A. Update the issue log
  B. Create a project charter
  C. Validate the status report
  D. Monitor performance
  E. Approve deliverables
  F. Baseline the project schedule
  C. Validate the status report
  D. Monitor performance

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  Explanation

  When managing vendor contracts, the PM must validate vendor status reports to confirm progress and monitor vendor performance against agreed service levels. Approving deliverables occurs less frequently, and creating charters/baselining schedules are initiation tasks, not recurring vendor management tasks.

  CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 - Procurement & Vendor Management; CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-004 Governance, Risk & Compliance domain.

• Question 225:

  A team member identifies a critical issue in production. Which of the following should the project manager apply?

  A. Compliance check
  B. Release plan
  C. Rollback plan
  D. Validation check
  C. Rollback plan

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  Explanation

  A rollback plan, also known as a backout plan, is a strategy designed to reverse changes made during a project in case of failure or undesired results. A rollback plan is a form of risk response that allows the project to restore the previous

  state and minimize the impact of the issue. A rollback plan is usually created during the planning phase and implemented during the execution or closing phase of the project. The other options are not correct because:

  A compliance check is a process that ensures that the project meets the relevant standards, regulations, and requirements. A compliance check is not a risk response, but rather a quality control or assurance activity.

  A release plan is a document that outlines the scope, schedule, and resources for delivering a product or service to the customer. A release plan is not a risk response, but rather a communication or scope management tool.

  A validation check is a process that verifies that the project deliverables meet the customer's needs and expectations. A validation check is not a risk response, but rather a quality control or assurance activity.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Executing and Closing Projects, page 314; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3:

  Project Execution, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, execute and monitor project tasks using traditional methodologies; Backout Plan - DevX

• Question 226:

  A few weeks before a project is scheduled to be completed, the client asks to add a new feature to the product that is being developed. The project manager analyzes the project schedule and determines the feature can be implemented quite

  easily without affecting the completion date.

  Which of the following should the project manager do first?

  A. Escalate the change to the CCB.
  B. Review the requested change.
  C. Document the change recommendations.
  D. Validate the implementation of the requested change.
  B. Review the requested change.

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  Explanation

  The project manager should review the requested change first to assess its impact, feasibility, and alignment with the project objectives and scope. Reviewing the change will help the project manager to determine if the change is necessary, beneficial, and acceptable to the stakeholders. The project manager should also consider the risks, costs, and quality implications of the change before proceeding to the next steps of the change management process.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; 5 Steps in the Change Management Process | HBS Online; 8 Steps for an Effective Change Management Process - Smartsheet

• Question 227:

  The project manager notices that the contractor has not been attending the weekly project progress meetings. Which of the following actions should the project manager take?

  A. Contact the contractor directly.
  B. Cancel the contract.
  C. Enforce contract rules of engagement.
  D. Issue a contract change notice.
  C. Enforce contract rules of engagement.

• Question 228:

  When assigning access, classifying information based on sensitivity is referred to as:

  A. Digital security
  B. Physical security
  C. Data security
  D. Operational security
  C. Data security

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  Explanation

  Data security involves classifying information based on sensitivity and ensuring that it is protected accordingly. This approach is key in project management to protect sensitive data, as emphasized by CompTIA Project+.

• Question 229:

  Which of the following best describes why a project manager would decide to sign a fixed- price contract with a vendor?

  A. The scope of the project deliverable is clearly defined.
  B. There is a non-disclosure agreement in place.
  C. There are multiple requirements for the product.
  D. The PM wants to simplify the logistics of the required product.
  A. The scope of the project deliverable is clearly defined.

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  Explanation

• Question 230:

  During a brainstorming session, a project team is elaborating on what caused the unexpected crash of the website that the team was developing. Given the following:

  

  Which of the following was the initial cause of the issue?

  A. Inadequate memory
  B. Incorrect configuration
  C. Lack of infrastructure
  D. Inadequate instructions
  B. Incorrect configuration

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  Explanation

  Incorrect configuration was the initial cause of the issue that caused the unexpected crash of the website that the team was developing. The diagram given is an example of a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect. The diagram has four main categories: people, process, technology, and environment. Each category has subcategories that list specific factors that may contribute to the problem or effect. The diagram shows that incorrect configuration under technology was marked as an initial cause of website crash.