CompTIA PK0-005 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA PK0-005 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 91:

  A critical business initiative introduced new processes and technology to the organization. Which of the following approaches should be used to ensure the deliverables are increasingly adopted and leveraged by the organization over time?

  A. Creation of a social news forum
  B. Management directives to use the new system
  C. New user kickoff meeting
  D. Monthly feedback and training sessions
  D. Monthly feedback and training sessions

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  Explanation

  Monthly feedback and training sessions are the best approach to ensure that the deliverables of a critical business initiative are increasingly adopted and leveraged by the organization over time. Feedback and training sessions are communication and learning activities that provide information and guidance on how to use and benefit from the new processes and technology introduced by the initiative. Feedback and training sessions can help to increase awareness, understanding, acceptance, and adoption of the deliverables among the organization's employees and stakeholders. They can also help to identify and address any issues or challenges that may arise during the implementation and transition phases.

• Question 92:

  As a result of an internal assessment, the steering committee states that the company does not currently have the required skill set or technical tools to develop a particular feature in the project.

  Which of the following procurement methods would help the company?

  A. Subscription
  B. Subcontract
  C. Lease
  D. Build
  B. Subcontract

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  Explanation

• Question 93:

  A project manager is reviewing sprint performance in a retrospective meeting. Given the following chart:

  

  Which of the following sprints shows the highest velocity?

  A. Sprint 1
  B. Sprint 2
  C. Sprint 3
  D. Sprint 4
  E. Sprint 5
  A. Sprint 1

• Question 94:

  Which of the following would be the best means of presenting materials to and allowing interactive feedback from a project team?

  A. Text message
  B. Chat
  C. Email
  D. Videoconference
  D. Videoconference

• Question 95:

  Which of the following is a disadvantage of a cloud model?

  A. Limited processing and storage capacity
  B. Limited expansion capability
  C. Longer latency time
  D. Higher dependency on the vendor
  D. Higher dependency on the vendor

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  Explanation

  A common disadvantage of cloud models is higher dependency on the vendor--often described as vendor lock-in. When solutions rely on a provider's proprietary services, APIs, data formats, or managed offerings, switching providers (or moving back on-premises) can become costly and complex. This dependency can reduce portability and negotiating leverage over time, and it can increase switching costs if pricing, service levels, or strategic needs change.

  Options A and B are generally the opposite of typical cloud benefits: cloud platforms usually provide elastic scaling and abundant capacity relative to on-prem constraints (assuming budget allows). Latency (C) can be a disadvantage in some architectures, but it isn't as consistently defining as vendor dependence-- latency can be mitigated through region selection, edge services, and network design, and many workloads experience acceptable performance. Vendor dependency/ lock-in, however, is a well-known structural risk of adopting cloud-native services.

  From a project management lens, this matters in planning and governance: procurement strategy, architectural choices, and exit/migration planning help manage the risk of over-dependence on a single provider.

• Question 96:

  A project is executed to migrate all data to a single system following the merger of two companies. The team validates that system performance will not be impacted. Which of the following did the team perform?

  A. Regression testing
  B. Smoke testing
  C. Stress testing
  D. Automation testing
  C. Stress testing

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  Explanation

  Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates how a system behaves under extreme load conditions, such as high volume of data, concurrent users, or transactions. Stress testing can help to identify the system's breaking point, bottlenecks, and resource limitations, and to ensure that the system can recover from failures and maintain its functionality. In this case, the team performed stress testing to validate that system performance will not be impacted by migrating all data to a single system following the merger of two companies. This implies that the team simulated a high amount of data transfer and processing, and measured the system's response time, throughput, availability, and reliability under such load. Stress testing is better than the other options because: Regression testing is a type of functional testing that verifies that a system's existing features and functionality are not affected by a change or an update. Regression testing does not focus on system performance or load conditions, but rather on system correctness and quality. Smoke testing is a type of functional testing that checks the basic functionality and stability of a system before performing more detailed and comprehensive testing. Smoke testing does not measure system performance or load conditions, but rather ensures that the system is ready for further testing. Automation testing is a technique of using software tools or scripts to execute test cases and compare the actual results with the expected results. Automation testing is not a specific type of testing, but rather a way of performing testing. Automation testing can be applied to various types of testing, including stress testing, regression testing, and smoke testing.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, What is Stress Testing? Stress Testing: A Complete Guide, What is Regression Testing? Regression Testing: A Complete Guide4, What is Smoke Testing? Smoke Testing: A Complete Guide, What is Automation Testing? Automation Testing: A Complete Guide

• Question 97:

  A project manager is meeting with stakeholders to identify objectives and success criteria. Which of the following artifacts is the project manager working on?

  A. Project charter
  B. Requirements traceability matrix
  C. Project communications plan
  D. Project risk register
  A. Project charter

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  Explanation

  Objectives and success criteria are core elements of the project charter, which formally authorizes the project and establishes the high-level direction for what success looks like. During initiation, the PM works with stakeholders to define the project's purpose, objectives, high-level scope, key stakeholders, assumptions /constraints, and success criteria. That aligns to CompTIA Project+ initiation artifacts and the practice of establishing alignment before detailed planning begins.

  A requirements traceability matrix is used later to map detailed requirements through design/build/test to ensure nothing is missed; it's not the primary artifact for initial objectives and success criteria. A communications plan defines audiences, channels, frequency, and message types; it's informed by objectives but isn't where objectives are defined. A risk register captures uncertainties and responses; it's created /expanded as risks are identified but is not the main artifact for defining objectives and success measures.

  So, when the PM is meeting stakeholders to define objectives and success criteria, they are primarily working on the project charter (or charter-level initiation documentation) that anchors the project's "why" and how success will be evaluated.

• Question 98:

  During the execution phase, user accepted testing failed; nonetheless, the vendor PM is insisting that the program manager approve the invoice for this phase. Which of the following actions should the Program manager take?

  A. Escalate the issue with the project sponsor and ask for assistance in managing the situation.
  B. Work with the vendor to achieve a compromise that benefits everyone.
  C. Approve the invoice to avoid damaging the relationship with the vendor.
  D. Schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work.
  D. Schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work.

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  Explanation

  The program manager should schedule a call with the vendor PM and vendor executive to review the statement of work (SOW), which is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, timeline, quality, and payment terms of the project. The program manager should clarify the expectations and criteria for user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a process of verifying that the system meets the user's requirements and expectations. The program manager should also discuss the reasons for the UAT failure and the corrective actions needed to resolve the issues. The program manager should not approve the invoice until the UAT is successfully completed, as this would compromise the quality and value of the project. The program manager should also not escalate the issue or work on a compromise without first reviewing the SOW and communicating with the vendor.

• Question 99:

  A project is behind schedule. Which of the following actions could a project manager take to meet the stated objectives and put the project back on schedule?

  A. Leave the project.
  B. Add resources to work on project tasks.
  C. Redefine the project scope.
  D. Remove deliverables from the project.
  B. Add resources to work on project tasks.

• Question 100:

  During timeline creation, the project manager is unsure if the development team can complete coding before new servers are installed in the IT department. Which of the following should the project manager do to increase project certainty?

  A. Hold a new backlog prioritization meeting.
  B. Add milestones to check the project's progress.
  C. Adjust the task relationship to complete coding in advance.
  D. Apply contingency buffers to the critical path.
  D. Apply contingency buffers to the critical path.

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  Explanation

  Adding contingency buffers to the critical path is a method to account for potential delays, increasing project certainty. This technique is part of risk management and schedule management, as recommended by CompTIA Project+.