CompTIA JK0-022 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA JK0-022 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 611:

  A customer service department has a business need to send high volumes of confidential information to customers electronically. All emails go through a DLP scanner. Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet the business needs and protect confidential information?

  A. Automatically encrypt impacted outgoing emails
  B. Automatically encrypt impacted incoming emails
  C. Monitor impacted outgoing emails
  D. Prevent impacted outgoing emails
  A. Automatically encrypt impacted outgoing emails

  ---

  Encryption is done to protect confidentiality and integrity of data. It also provides authentication, nonrepudiation and access control to the data. Since all emails go through a DLP scanner and it is outgoing main that requires protection then the best option is to put a system in place that will encrypt the outgoing emails automatically. Incorrect Answers: B: Incoming email is not the issue at hand. The outgoing email is the confidential information being sent that requires protection. C: Monitoring outgoing mail is already being done by the DLP system in place. D: You cannot prevent these emails from being sent out as it is part of the business procedure. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 248

• Question 612:

  Which of the following offerings typically allows the customer to apply operating system patches?

  A. Software as a service
  B. Public Clouds
  C. Cloud Based Storage
  D. Infrastructure as a service
  D. Infrastructure as a service

  ---

  Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software. Incorrect Answers: A: In the business model using software as a service (SaaS), users are provided access to application software and databases. Cloud providers manage the infrastructure and platforms that run the applications. SaaS is sometimes referred to as "on-demand software" and is usually priced on a pay-per-use basis or using a subscription fee. B: A cloud is called a "public cloud" when the services are rendered over a network that is open for public use. C: Cloud storage is a model of data storage where the digital data is stored in logical pools, the physical storage spans multiple servers, and the physical environment is typically owned and managed by a hosting company. References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cloud_computing http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cloud_storage

• Question 613:

  The loss prevention department has purchased a new application that allows the employees to monitor the alarm systems at remote locations. However, the application fails to connect to the vendor's server and the users are unable to log in. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of this issue? (Select TWO).

  A. URL filtering
  B. Role-based access controls
  C. MAC filtering
  D. Port Security
  E. Firewall rules
  A. URL filtering
  E. Firewall rules

• Question 614:

  A system administrator is responding to a legal order to turn over all logs from all company servers. The system administrator records the system time of all servers to ensure that:

  A. HDD hashes are accurate.
  B. the NTP server works properly.
  C. chain of custody is preserved.
  D. time offset can be calculated.
  D. time offset can be calculated.

  ---

  It is quite common for workstation times to be off slightly from actual time, and that can happen with servers as well. Since a forensic investigation is usually dependent on a step-by-step account of what has happened, being able to follow events in the correct time sequence is critical. Because of this, it is imperative to record the time offset on each affected machine during the investigation. One method of assisting with this is to add an entry to a log file and note the time that this was done and the time associated with it on the system. Incorrect Answers: A: Recording the system time of all the servers is not hoe one checks whether hashes are accurate. B: Recording the system time of all the servers is not the way to check whether a server works properly. C: Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you're open to dispute about possible evidence tampering. In this case the logs from all the company servers have to be turned over which means this is not a chain of custody issue. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 453, 448

• Question 615:

  A company with a US-based sales force has requested that the VPN system be configured to authenticate the sales team based on their username, password and a client side certificate. Additionally, the security administrator has restricted the VPN to only allow authentication from the US territory. How many authentication factors are in use by the VPN system?

  A. 1
  B. 2
  C. 3
  D. 4
  C. 3

  ---

  Three different types of authentication factors have been used in this question: Something you know username and password. Something you have - client side certificate. Somewhere you are - authentication to the VPN is only allowed from the U.S. territory. Incorrect Answers: A: This option refers to single factor authentication, which only makes use of one authentication factor. B: This option refers to two-factor authentication, which makes use of two different authentication factors. D: This option refers to four-factor authentication, which makes use of four different authentication factors. References: Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 280, 282.

• Question 616:

  Which of the following concepts is a term that directly relates to customer privacy considerations?

  A. Data handling policies
  B. Personally identifiable information
  C. Information classification
  D. Clean desk policies
  B. Personally identifiable information

  ---

  Personally identifiable information (PII) is a catchall for any data that can be used to uniquely identify an individual. This data can be anything from the person's name to a fingerprint (think biometrics), credit card number, or patient record. This has a direct relation to customer privacy considerations. Incorrect Answers: A: Data handling policies would refer to only those users needing to work with it should be able to access the data. C: Information classification is done by confidentiality and comprises of three categories, namely: public use, internal use and restricted use. D: Clean Desk Policy Information is used to protect data and your business, encourage employees to maintain clean desks and to leave out only those papers that are relevant to the project they are working on at that moment. All sensitive information should be put away when the employee is away from their desk. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 404, 409, 412

• Question 617:

  Which of the following can BEST help prevent cross-site scripting attacks and buffer overflows on a production system?

  A. Input validation
  B. Network intrusion detection system
  C. Anomaly-based HIDS
  D. Peer review
  A. Input validation

  ---

  Input validation is a defensive technique intended to mitigate against possible user input attacks, such as buffer overflows and fuzzing. Input validation checks every user input submitted to the application before processing that input. The check could be a length, a character type, a language type, or a domain. Incorrect Answers: B: A network-based IDS (NIDS) is an intrusion detection system that scans network traffic in real time and is useful for detecting network-based attacks. C: A host-based IDS (HIDS) is an intrusion detection system that runs as a service on a host computer system. It is used to monitor the machine logs, system events, and application activity for signs of intrusion. It does not prevent attacks, such as cross-site scripting attacks and buffer overflows, but detects it. D: Peer review is the process of reviewing source code before the software is released. This is performed by a peer rather than by the programmer. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 111-112, 116-117, 257, 338 Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 21, 197, 216, 319

• Question 618:

  A company has purchased an application that integrates into their enterprise user directory for account authentication. Users are still prompted to type in their usernames and passwords. Which of the following types of authentication is being utilized here?

  A. Separation of duties
  B. Least privilege
  C. Same sign-on
  D. Single sign-on
  C. Same sign-on

  ---

  Same sign-on requires the users to re-enter their credentials but it allows them to use the same credentials that they use to sign on locally. Incorrect Answers: A: Separation of duties is the division of administrative tasks and their assignment to different administrators. This ensures that no one user has complete access or power over an entire network, server, or system. This is not an authentication system. B: The principle of least privilege is used to ensure that users are only provided with the minimum privileges and permissions that allow them to perform their duties. This is not an authentication system. D: Single sign-on does not require users to re-enter their credentials once they have logged on locally. References: http://blogs.technet.com/b/jeff_stokes/archive/2013/07/08/today-s-cloud-tip-same-sign-on-vs- single-sign-on.aspx Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 149-150, 153 Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 82,

• Question 619:

  The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned with moving an application to a SaaS cloud provider. Which of the following can be implemented to provide for data confidentiality assurance during and after the migration to the cloud?

  A. HPM technology
  B. Full disk encryption
  C. DLP policy
  D. TPM technology
  C. DLP policy

  ---

  Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. The Software as a Service (SaaS) applications are remotely run over the Web and as such requires DLP monitoring. Incorrect Answers: A: HPM is an acronym for home protection methods. B: Full Disk encryption is hardware-based not software based as is the case with the SaaS cloud provider. D: TPM is hardware technology not software-based as is the case with the SaaS cloud provider. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 10, 17

• Question 620:

  Ann, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a company, sees cloud computing as a way to save money while providing valuable services. She is looking for a cost- effective solution to assist in capacity planning as well as visibility into the performance of the network. Which of the following cloud technologies should she look into?

  A. IaaS
  B. MaaS
  C. SaaS
  D. PaaS
  B. MaaS