CompTIA JK0-022 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA JK0-022 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1141:

  Which of the following documents outlines the technical and security requirements of an agreement between organizations?

  A. BPA
  B. RFQ
  C. ISA
  D. RFC
  C. ISA

• Question 1142:

  To protect corporate data on removable media, a security policy should mandate that all removable devices use which of the following?

  A. Full disk encryption
  B. Application isolation
  C. Digital rights management
  D. Data execution prevention
  A. Full disk encryption

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  Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the hard drive of the device or on a removable drive. This feature ensures that the data on the device or removable drive cannot be accessed in a useable form should it be stolen. Incorrect Answers: B: Application Isolation is the process of ensuring that the application always uses the version of shared files with which it was installed, preventing component versioning conflicts. This is performed by the developer of the application. C: Digital rights management (DRM) is a set of technologies used by publishers, copyright holders, and individuals to control the after-sale use of digital content, most prominently, to curb piracy of digital content. D: Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a security feature built into the operating system. It defines areas of memory as executable and nonexecutable. This protects against program errors, and some malicious exploits, such as buffer overflows. References: Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 251- http://www.symantec.com/connect/articles/application-isolation- basics-and-directions http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_rights_management http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_Execution_Prevention

• Question 1143:

  The security consultant is assigned to test a client's new software for security, after logs show targeted attacks from the Internet. To determine the weaknesses, the consultant has no access to the application program interfaces, code, or data structures. This is an example of which of the following types of testing?

  A. Black box
  B. Penetration
  C. Gray box
  D. White box
  A. Black box

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  Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings. This method of test can be applied to virtually every level of software testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance. It typically comprises most if not all higher level testing, but can also dominate unit testing as well. Specific knowledge of the application's code/internal structure and programming knowledge in general is not required. The tester is aware of what the software is supposed to do but is not aware of how it does it. For instance, the tester is aware that a particular input returns a certain, invariable output but is not aware of how the software produces the output in the first place. Incorrect Answers: B: Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are used to test the security controls of a system or application. They are not used specifically for general application testing. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. C: Gray box testing, also called gray box analysis, is a strategy for software debugging in which the tester has limited knowledge of the internal details of the program. A gray box is a device, program or system whose workings are partially understood. Gray box testing can be contrasted with black box testing, a scenario in which the tester has no knowledge or access to the internal workings of a program, or white box testing, a scenario in which the internal particulars are fully known. Gray box testing is commonly used in penetration tests. Gray box testing is considered to be non-intrusive and unbiased because it does not require that the tester have access to the source code. With respect to internal processes, gray box testing treats a program as a black box that must be analyzed from the outside. During a gray box test, the person may know how the system components interact but not have detailed knowledge about internal program functions and operation. A clear distinction exists between the developer and the tester, thereby minimizing the risk of personnel conflicts. This question is asking about testing the application without any knowledge of the internal mechanisms. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. D: White-box testing (also known as clear box testing, glass box testing, transparent box testing, and structural testing) is a method of testing software that tests internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality (i.e. black-box testing). In white-box testing an internal perspective of the system, as well as programming skills, are used to design test cases. The tester chooses inputs to exercise paths through the code and determine the appropriate outputs. This is analogous to testing nodes in a circuit, e.g. in-circuit testing (ICT). White-box testing can be applied at the unit, integration and system levels of the software testing process. Although traditional testers tended to think of white-box testing as being done at the unit level, it is used for integration and system testing more frequently today. It can test paths within a unit, paths between units during integration, and between subsystems during a systemlevel test. This question is asking about testing the application without any knowledge of the internal mechanisms. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black-box_testing http://searchsoftwarequality.techtarget.com/definition/penetration-testing http://searchsoftwarequality.techtarget.com/definition/gray-box http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ White-box_testing

• Question 1144:

  Which of the following is a concern when encrypting wireless data with WEP?

  A. WEP displays the plain text entire key when wireless packet captures are reassembled
  B. WEP implements weak initialization vectors for key transmission
  C. WEP uses a very weak encryption algorithm
  D. WEP allows for only four pre-shared keys to be configured
  B. WEP implements weak initialization vectors for key transmission

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  The initialization vector (IV) that WEP uses for encryption is 24-bit, which is quite weak and means that IVs are reused with the same key. By examining the repeating result, it was easy for attackers to crack the WEP secret key. This is known as an IV attack. Incorrect Answers: A: WEP does not display the entire key as plain text. B: The WEP encryption algorithm is not the main WEP weakness. D: WEP has no restrictions on the number of pre-shared keys. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 171, 258

• Question 1145:

  Which of the following allows Pete, a security technician, to provide the MOST secure wireless implementation?

  A. Implement WPA
  B. Disable SSID
  C. Adjust antenna placement
  D. Implement WEP
  A. Implement WPA

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  Of the options supplied, WiFi Protected Access (WPA) is the most secure and is the replacement for WEP. Incorrect Answers: B: Disabling the SSID will only hide the wireless network, and is not more secure than WPA. C: This will increase or decrease signal strength and availability, but will not make the network secure. D: WEP was replaced by WPA to offer a more secure solution. References: Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 59- 62.

• Question 1146:

  Which of the following can be used as an equipment theft deterrent?

  A. Screen locks
  B. GPS tracking
  C. Cable locks
  D. Whole disk encryption
  C. Cable locks

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  Cable locks are theft deterrent devices that can be used to tether a device to a fixed point keep smaller devices from being easy to steal. Incorrect Answers: A: Screen-lock is a security feature that requires the user to enter a password after a short period of inactivity before they can access the system again. This feature ensures that if your device is left unattended or is lost or stolen, it will be difficult for anyone else to access your data or applications. However, this does not deter theft. B: Global Positioning System (GPS) tracking can be used to identify its location of a stolen device and can allow authorities to recover the device. However, for GPS tracking to work, the device must have an Internet connection or a wireless phone service over which to send its location information. D: Disk and device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen. However, this does not deter theft. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 369, 418-419 Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 236,

• Question 1147:

  An overseas branch office within a company has many more technical and non-technical security incidents than other parts of the company. Which of the following management controls should be introduced to the branch office to improve their state of security?

  A. Initial baseline configuration snapshots
  B. Firewall, IPS and network segmentation
  C. Event log analysis and incident response
  D. Continuous security monitoring processes
  D. Continuous security monitoring processes

• Question 1148:

  Due to issues with building keys being duplicated and distributed, a security administrator wishes to change to a different security control regarding a restricted area. The goal is to provide access based upon facial recognition. Which of the following will address this requirement?

  A. Set up mantraps to avoid tailgating of approved users.
  B. Place a guard at the entrance to approve access.
  C. Install a fingerprint scanner at the entrance.
  D. Implement proximity readers to scan users' badges.
  B. Place a guard at the entrance to approve access.

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  A guard can be instructed to deny access until authentication has occurred will address the situation adequately. Incorrect Answers: A: Although mantraps require visual identification, as well as authentication, to gain access, setting up a mantrap will not keep those with keys out. C: Fingerprint scanner is not facial recognition. D: User badges and proximity readers will not necessarily make use of facial recognition. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 367, 374

• Question 1149:

  After copying a sensitive document from his desktop to a flash drive, Joe, a user, realizes that the document is no longer encrypted. Which of the following can a security technician implement to ensure that documents stored on Joe's desktop remain encrypted when moved to external media or other network based storage?

  A. Whole disk encryption
  B. Removable disk encryption
  C. Database record level encryption
  D. File level encryption
  D. File level encryption

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  Encryption is used to ensure the confidentiality of information. In this case you should make use of file level encryption. File level encryption is a form of disk encryption where individual files or directories are encrypted by the file system itself. This is in contrast to full disk encryption where the entire partition or disk, in which the file system resides, is encrypted. Incorrect Answers: A: Full disk encryption can be used to encrypt an entire volume with 128-bit encryption. When the entire volume is encrypted, the data is not accessible to someone who might boot another operating system in an attempt to bypass the computer's security. Full disk encryption is sometimes referred to as hard drive encryption. This would be best to protect data that is at rest. B: Removable disk encryption will be used to prevent unauthorized access to data storage, but is does not replace file encryption in all situations. C: Database record level encryption is not going to ensure that Joe's desktop's documents will remain encrypted when moved since Joe might have many other types of files other than database files. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 59, 237, 290