351-080 Exam Details

  • Exam Code
    :351-080
  • Exam Name
    :CCIE Data Center Written
  • Certification
    :Cisco Certifications
  • Vendor
    :Cisco
  • Total Questions
    :473 Q&As
  • Last Updated
    :Dec 16, 2021

Cisco 351-080 Online Questions & Answers

  • Question 141:

    Which option lists valid network interfaces for VSM?

    A. Layer 2, Layer 3, and keepalive
    B. control, management, and packet
    C. management, Layer 2, and Layer 3
    D. management, packet, and VSM

  • Question 142:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    Which statement is not true?

    A. Chassis 1 in blade 2 has a major fault.
    B. Those service profiles have a user acknowledge maintenance policy configured.
    C. If you check Acknowledge All and click Apply, the blades reload.
    D. Any user can acknowledge the reload

  • Question 143:

    On a Cisco Nexus 7000 device, on which port type can port security be configured?

    A. Access ports
    B. SPAN destination port
    C. trunk ports
    D. public VLAN-enabled ports

  • Question 144:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and SW2). The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches. On SW1 and SW2, ports connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1 and SW2 are also connected using a port channel that is configured as a vPC peer link. Which statement describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?

    A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2.
    B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane.
    C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link connectivity is lost.
    D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.

  • Question 145:

    Which two Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support FCoE? (Choose two.)

    A. 2248TP
    B. 2232ET-P
    C. 2224TP
    D. 2232PP
    E. 2232TM-E

  • Question 146:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?

    A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.
    B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
    C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
    D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.

  • Question 147:

    A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?

    B. 1
    C. 2
    D. 3
    E. 4

  • Question 148:

    What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)

    A. perform flow lookups
    B. intercept packets on service enabled ports
    C. run packets through the vPath flow manager
    D. classify the packets
    E. flow manager emits an action for the packets
    F. enforce the action determined by the flow manager

  • Question 149:

    Which three options describe information that can be captured with the show iscsi stats iscsi x/y detail command? (Choose three.)

    A. PDU or frame drop occurrences
    B. speed of the iSCSI interface
    C. data CRC error
    D. buffer credits
    E. TMF-REQ and TMF-RESP
    F. duplex of the iSCSI interface

  • Question 150:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

    A. Links operating at 2 Gbps support only one VSAN.
    B. VSAN 99 is definitely not configured on the remote switch.
    C. B2B credit must not be 255 on the remote switch for VSAN 99.
    D. Domain ID overlap could cause VSAN 99 isolation.
    E. The zone set database for VSAN 99 does not meet merge requirements.

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