CompTIA 220-1201 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1201 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 361:

  An integrated webcam on a user's laptop broke, so a technician installed a temporary, external webcam. Since the external webcam installation, other users can only see part of the user's face during videoconferences.

  Which of the following BEST describes the reason for this issue?

  A. The webcam is not on a level surface.
  B. The webcam driver should be updated.
  C. The webcam is plugged into the wrong USB port.
  D. The webcam is not compatible with the OS.
  A. The webcam is not on a level surface.

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  Explanation

  The most likely reason for the issue is that the webcam is not on a level surface, which causes the camera angle to be distorted. The user should adjust the position of the webcam so that it is aligned with the laptop screen and captures the user's face fully. The other options are not relevant to this issue, as they would not affect the camera angle or visibility of the user's face.

  Verified References: How to Position Your Webcam Correctly.

• Question 362:

  A technician is attaching additional internal USB ports to a motherboard.

  In which of the following locations will the technician most likely connect these ports?

  A. TPM
  B. Header pinouts
  C. M.2 connector
  D. Expansion slots
  B. Header pinouts

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is B. Header pinouts.

  According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware:

  Header pinouts on a motherboard are designated connectors for internal components such as USB ports, audio connectors, and front panel buttons/LEDs. When adding additional internal USB ports, a technician typically connects them to the motherboard's USB header pinouts. These headers provide the necessary data and power connections to enable USB functionality for front-panel or expansion USB ports.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  A. TPM (Trusted Platform Module): Used for hardware-based security functions like encryption, not USB connectivity.

  C. M.2 connector: Used primarily for SSDs and other small-form-factor expansion devices, not standard USB ports.

  D. Expansion slots: Typically PCIe or PCI slots are used for expansion cards such as GPUs, network cards, or USB controller cards, but not for connecting internal USB headers directly.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives - Hardware: "Given a scenario, install and configure motherboards and internal components including headers and USB ports." Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Motherboards and Internal Connectors.

• Question 363:

  A technician receives a tablet that looks like it has a bulge inside. The bulge is pushing the screen away from the backplate. The tablet still turns on when it is plugged in, but the screen looks damaged and turns off when unplugged.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

  A. Malfunctioning power supply
  B. Damaged charge port
  C. Deprecated battery
  D. Broken screen
  C. Deprecated battery

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  Explanation

  Abulging tablet casingis a classic sign of aswollen lithium-ion battery, often caused by age, overheating, or overcharging. This is adangerous condition, as swollen batteries can rupture or catch fire. It also explains why the tablet only works when plugged in - the battery is no longer holding a charge.

  Option A:Power supply issues wouldn't cause physical bulging.

  Option B:A bad charge port wouldn't cause screen damage or physical distortion.

  Option D:A broken screen could cause display issues, but not the bulging chassis.

  References:

  Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, configure settings and use cases for laptops and mobile devices.

• Question 364:

  Which of the following is the ability to automatically increase and decrease instances based on demand?

  A. Availability
  B. Scalability
  C. Multitenancy
  D. Elasticity
  D. Elasticity

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  Explanation

  Elasticity in cloud computing refers to the ability of a system to automatically allocate and release resources (such as CPU, RAM, or virtual machines) as workload demands change. This feature is key to ensuring that resources are used efficiently without manual intervention.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives -Domain 4.0 Virtualization and Cloud Computing -Objective 4.2: Summarize cloud computing concepts.

• Question 365:

  A technician checks a RAID 5 array and sees a S.M.A.R.T. alert on one disk, but the array still shows healthy.

  What should the technician do next?

  A. Run chkdsk /f
  B. Disable write caching
  C. Rebuild the RAID array
  D. Replace the failing drive
  D. Replace the failing drive

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  Explanation

  CompTIA A+ teaches that S.M.A.R.T. warnings indicate imminent drive failure. Even if the RAID controller reports the array as "healthy," a S.M.A.R.T. alert means the drive should be replaced immediately.

  RAID 5 provides redundancy for one drive failure, but technicians should replace the degrading drive before it fails fully, ensuring the rebuild happens proactively.

  Running chkdsk affects file systems, not drive health. Disabling write caching is unrelated. Rebuilding the array should only occur after replacing the faulty drive.

  Replacing the drive prevents a catastrophic dual-drive failure scenario, which RAID 5 cannot survive.

  This approach aligns with CompTIA troubleshooting guidelines for RAID maintenance and S.M.A.R.T.diagnostics.

• Question 366:

  Which of the following best characterizes the use of a virtual machine as a sandbox?

  A. Run an application on multiple workstations without installation.
  B. Explore how an application behaves in a different environment
  C. Migrate a currently used legacy application from physical to virtual
  D. Create a firewall where the sandbox acts as a perimeter network.
  B. Explore how an application behaves in a different environment

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  Explanation

  A sandbox in virtualization allows testing an application in an isolated environment to observe its behavior without affecting the host system.

  Why Not A (Run an application on multiple workstations): This describes application virtualization, not sandboxing.

  Why Not C (Migrate a legacy application): This is about virtualization for legacy support, not testing.

  Why Not D (Create a firewall): A firewall does not act as a sandbox for application testing.

  References:

  Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization and sandboxing.

• Question 367:

  Which of the following best describes the primary function of a spam gateway?

  A. Serves as a repository for email routing logs
  B. Blocks unrequested ICMP packets from external networks
  C. Categorizes incoming network messages
  D. Mitigates DDoS attacks
  C. Categorizes incoming network messages

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  Explanation

  A spam gateway is a software solution that filters email messages based on various criteria, such as sender, recipient, subject, content, attachments, and URLs. A spam gateway categorizes incoming network messages as spam or non-spam, and either blocks, quarantines, or delivers them accordingly. A spam gateway can help protect email servers and users from malicious or unwanted emails, such as phishing, malware, or advertising.

  A. Serves as a repository for email routing logs. This is not the primary function of a spam gateway. Email routing logs are records of the path and status of email messages as they travel through the network. Email routing logs can help troubleshoot email delivery issues, but they do not filter or categorize email messages.

  B. Blocks unrequested ICMP packets from external networks. This is not the primary function of a spam gateway. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) packets are used to communicate network information, such as errors, requests, or replies. Blocking unrequested ICMP packets from external networks can help prevent network scanning or denial-of-service attacks, but it does not filter or categorize email messages.

  D.

  Mitigates DDoS attacks. This is not the primary function of a spam gateway. DDoS (Distributed Denial-of-Service) attacks are attempts to overwhelm a network or server with a large amount of traffic from multiple sources. Mitigating DDoS attacks can help maintain network availability and performance, but it does not filter or categorize email messages.

  References:

  Gateway Spam Filter - SpamTitan Email Security1.

• Question 368:

  A technician assembled a new PC. After a few minutes, the computer slows down and then shuts itself off.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of the failure?

  A. Thermal paste was not used.
  B. The GPU needs additional power.
  C. The memory is insufficient.
  D. The motherboard is incompatible.
  A. Thermal paste was not used.

• Question 369:

  A small business is growing and wants to scale its computing capacity. The business wants to continue using on-site equipment until it is EOL. The solution must be able to share data with the local data center.

  Which of the following models should a technician suggest?

  A. Public
  B. Community
  C. Hybrid
  D. Private
  E. SaaS
  C. Hybrid

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  Explanation

  The requirements describe an environment transitioning gradually from on-site hardware to scalable cloud services. The business wishes to continue using its existing local equipment until end of life, while also expanding computing resources beyond what the on-premises infrastructure can handle. Additionally, the cloud environment must be able to share data with the internal data center.

  This aligns perfectly with a hybrid cloud model , which CompTIA A+ defines as a combination of private (on-premises) and public cloud resources operating together. Hybrid cloud enables secure data sharing, workload distribution, and scaling without eliminating existing hardware investments. It allows organizations to offload high-demand processes to the cloud while maintaining sensitive data or critical services on-site.

  A private cloud (D) would not allow scaling into a public provider efficiently. A public cloud (A) replaces internal resources instead of complementing them. A community cloud (B) is shared among organizations with similar compliance requirements--not applicable here. SaaS (E) refers to hosted applications, not infrastructure scalability.

  Thus, a Hybrid cloud model fulfills all stated requirements: seamless data sharing, scalable computing, and continued use of on-site equipment.

• Question 370:

  A user can connect their laptop to the internet in the main office. However, when the user places the laptop on top of a motor on the factory floor, there is no internet connectivity.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

  A. Jitter
  B. Insufficient power levels
  C. External interference
  D. High latency
  C. External interference

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  Explanation

  Large electrical motors can emit electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can disrupt wireless signals and prevent connectivity.

  From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 -Wireless troubleshooting:

  "Sources of external interference such as motors or other electrical equipment can disrupt wireless network connectivity."

  Verified Source:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Troubleshooting CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4