CompTIA 220-1201 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1201 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1:

  Simulation Lab

  Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point.

  She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible.

  Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks.

  She requests that the default settings be changed to the following.

  Wireless Name: HomeWiFi

  Shared Key: CompTIA

  Router Password: Secure$1

  Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network.

  Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100

  Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54

  Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101

  Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11

  INSTRUCTIONS

  Configure Laura's wireless network using the network adapter window.

  If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All button.

  

  

  

  

  A. See the explanation below.
  B. PlaceHolder
  C. PlaceHolder
  D. PlaceHolder
  A. See the explanation below.

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  Explanation

  Here is the answer

  

  

  

• Question 2:

  A server that is crucial for daily operations is experiencing degraded performance. Upon investigation, a technician sees that one of the drives in a RAID 5 configuration shows a failure alert. The system must remain online during business hours, and the controller does not support hot swapping.

  Which of the following should the technician do to solve the issue?

  A. Update the RAID controller firmware to support hot swapping
  B. Implement a software-based RAID solution
  C. Change the drive during off-peak hours
  D. Replace the drive with a cold-swappable drive
  D. Replace the drive with a cold-swappable drive

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is D. Replace the drive with a cold-swappable drive.

  According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Storage and RAID:

  RAID 5 provides both data striping and parity for fault tolerance, but if the RAID controller does not support hot swapping, replacing a failed drive while the system is running is not possible.

  Cold-swappable drives are designed to be safely removed and replaced when the system is powered down, which allows maintenance without damaging the array or system.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  A. Update the RAID controller firmware to support hot swapping: Firmware updates may add hot swap functionality, but this is not guaranteed and may require a system reboot.

  B. Implement a software-based RAID solution: Software RAID requires a system reconfiguration and downtime; it does not immediately resolve the degraded RAID 5 array.

  C. Change the drive during off-peak hours: While feasible, this is essentially the same as using a cold-swappable drive but is less precise; using cold-swappable drives ensures safe replacement without downtime considerations.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives - Storage: "Given a scenario, troubleshoot RAID issues including failed drives, degraded arrays, and drive replacement procedures." Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on RAID and Storage Maintenance.

• Question 3:

  A manager wants to ensure that employees can only pick up their own printouts.

  Which of the following accomplishes this objective? Select two.

  A. PCL
  B. Tray selection
  C. Duplex setting
  D. User PIN
  E. RFID
  F. USB
  D. User PIN
  E. RFID

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  Explanation

  To ensure employees only pick up their own printouts, the printer must use an authentication-based release method so jobs are not immediately printed into the output tray where anyone can take them. A User PIN enables secure or "held" printing: the job is sent to the printer but remains stored in the printer's queue until the user walks up to the device and enters the correct PIN on the control panel. Only after successful PIN entry does the printer release and print that specific job, preventing accidental or unauthorized pickup of sensitive documents.

  RFID supports badge-based authentication and is commonly used with secure print release systems in offices. Users tap an RFID badge at the printer to authenticate, and then the printer releases only the authenticated user's queued print jobs. This is convenient and reduces the chance of users sharing PINs, while still enforcing that jobs are released only when the correct user is physically present.

  PCL is a printer language, tray selection and duplex are print settings, and USB is a connection method-none of these enforce user-specific job release. Therefore, the correct answers are User PIN and RFID.

• Question 4:

  An engineer must implement a solution to facilitate and maintain an organization's legacy application until it is retired. The application is currently hosted on three physical servers.

  Which of the following is the most suitable concept?

  A. SAN
  B. FaaS
  C. Virtualization
  D. Configuration management platform
  C. Virtualization

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  Explanation

  When a legacy application is running on multiple physical servers, and the organization wants to maintain it until retirement, the best CompTIA-aligned solution is virtualization. Virtualization allows the engineer to convert existing physical servers into virtual machines (VMs), a process known as P2V (Physical-to-Virtual) migration. This reduces hardware footprint, simplifies management, and isolates the application within a controlled environment. CompTIA A+ emphasizes virtualization for legacy support because it eliminates dependence on aging physical hardware while preserving application functionality exactly as before.

  Virtual machines also provide snapshots, backups, failover capabilities, and easier resource allocation, making them more reliable than maintaining old hardware. A SAN (A) provides storage, not application hosting. FaaS (B) is a serverless model inappropriate for legacy applications that require full OS environments. A configuration management platform (D) manages software deployments and settings but does not replace or consolidate physical servers.

  Thus, virtualization is the most suitable and industry-standard method for sustaining legacy applications.

• Question 5:

  Which of the following cable types is the most suitable for delivering 10Gb speeds for distances over 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m)?

  A. Multimode fiber
  B. Single-mode fiber
  C. Cat 6a
  D. Cat 6
  A. Multimode fiber

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  Explanation

  When delivering 10Gbps speeds over long distances, fiber optic cables are the best choice. Here's the breakdown:

  Opion A:

  Multimode Fiber (Correct Answer):

  Multimode fiber is designed for relatively short to medium distances (up to 1,312 feet or 400 meters) while supporting high-speed data transfer (10Gbps and above).

  It uses LED light sources and is cost-effective for environments like data centers or within buildings.

  For the specified distance of over 328ft but under 1,312ft, multimode fiber is the most suitable option.

  Incorrect Options:

  Option B:

  Single-mode Fiber: While single-mode fiber supports much greater distances (up to several miles or kilometers) and higher speeds, it is more expensive and unnecessary for the specified range. Single-mode fiber is generally used for long-haul networking or telecommunications.

  Option C: Cat 6a: Cat 6a is capable of 10Gbps speeds but only up to 328ft (100 meters). It cannot reliably handle the specified distance of over 328ft.

  Option D: Cat 6: Cat 6 is also limited to 10Gbps speeds at distances up to 328ft (100 meters). Beyond this range, it is unsuitable.

  Key Takeaway: For delivering 10Gbps speeds over distances longer than 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m), Multimode Fiber is the best choice due to its ability to support high-speed data over medium distances at a reasonable cost.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 3.1 - Cable types and their characteristics, including fiber optic cables.

• Question 6:

  Which of the following ports allows for secure communications?

  A. 20
  B. 22
  C. 23
  D. 25
  B. 22

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is B. 22.

  Port 22 is the default port for SSH (Secure Shell), a protocol that allows secure and encrypted remote login and command execution over a network. SSH uses public key cryptography to authenticate the client and the server, and to encrypt the data exchanged between them. SSH can be accessed through different ports, depending on the configuration of the server and the client. The default port for SSH is 22, but it can be changed to any other port for security reasons 1. Port 20 is the default port for FTP (File Transfer Protocol) data transfer, a protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network. FTP uses two ports: one for data transfer (port 20) and one for control commands (port 21). FTP does not provide encryption or authentication, and it is vulnerable to various attacks, such as packet sniffing, spoofing, or brute force. To secure FTP connections, protocols such as FTPS (FTP over SSL) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) can be used 2. Port 23 is the default port for Telnet, a protocol that allows remote login and command execution over a network. Telnet does not provide encryption or authentication, and it sends data in plain text, which can be easily intercepted or modified by attackers. Telnet is considered obsolete and insecure, and it should be replaced by SSH or other secure protocols 3. Port 25 is the default port for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), a protocol that allows sending and receiving email messages over a network. SMTP does not provide encryption or authentication, and it can be exploited by spammers or hackers to send malicious or unwanted emails. To secure SMTP connections, protocols such as SMTPS (SMTP over SSL) or STARTTLS (Transport Layer Security) can be used. Therefore, port 22 is the only port that allows for secure communications by default, as it uses SSH protocol. For more information about ports and their security, you can refer to the following web search results: How to secure your TCP/IP ports, What is an SSL port? A technical guide for HTTPS, HTTPS Port: What It Is, How to Use It, and More (2023).

• Question 7:

  A customer wants to synchronize mobile data but is concerned that it might be readily available to other devices no matter the location.

  Which of the following is the BEST method for the customer to use?

  A. BD-R
  B. Cloud
  C. SD card
  D. External HDD
  B. Cloud

• Question 8:

  A user ' s laptop monitor dims every evening. The user manually adjusts the screen setting but wants a permanent solution.

  Which of the following settings should a technician change to prevent the issue?

  A. Ambient light
  B. Battery
  C. Graphics
  D. Scheduled tasks
  A. Ambient light

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  Explanation

  The most likely cause of a laptop screen dimming consistently in the evening is an ambient light/adaptive brightness feature. Many laptops include an ambient light sensor that automatically changes screen brightness based on room lighting conditions. As natural light decreases later in the day, the sensor detects a darker environment and reduces brightness to save power and reduce eye strain. Because this behavior occurs at a predictable time (evening) and the user can temporarily correct it by manually increasing brightness, it strongly points to automatic brightness control rather than a hardware failure.

  Changing the Ambient light setting (disabling adaptive brightness/auto-brightness) provides a permanent fix by preventing the system from adjusting brightness in response to lighting changes. While battery/power plans can also dim displays to conserve energy, that usually correlates with running on battery power or specific power-saving modes-not a consistent evening pattern. Graphics settings typically affect resolution, scaling, or driver features and are not the primary control for time-of-day dimming behavior. Scheduled tasks could theoretically run display-related scripts, but that is uncommon compared to built-in ambient light adaptation. Therefore, adjusting the ambient light/adaptive brightness setting is the best CompTIA A+ answer.

• Question 9:

  A technician is installing a new high-end graphics card that uses a 12VHPWR connector.

  Which of the following is the maximum wattage supported by this power connector?

  A. 400W
  B. MOW
  C. 600W
  D. 700W
  C. 600W

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  Explanation

  The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.

  Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector's maximum capability.

  Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.

  Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.

  References:

  Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors.

• Question 10:

  A technician wants to monitor network statistics for devices communicating with one another on the local subnet.

  Which of the following devices should the technician install.

  A. Managed switch
  B. Router
  C. Access point
  D. Firewall
  A. Managed switch

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  Explanation

  A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.

  Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.

  Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.

  Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a local subnet.

  References:

  Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools.