CompTIA 220-1201 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1201 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 301:

  Which of the following, when combined, are used to make sure a workstation always has the same IP address on a network managed with DHCP?

  A. Creating a new scope
  B. Enabling network address translation
  C. Assigning a reservation
  D. Configuring an automatic private IP address
  C. Assigning a reservation

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  Explanation

  To ensure a workstation always receives the same IP address while still using DHCP, the correct method is to configure a DHCP reservation. A reservation "combines" two key pieces: the workstation's MAC address (hardware address) and a specific IP address within the DHCP scope. When the workstation requests an address, the DHCP server matches the request to the stored MAC address and consistently assigns the reserved IP each time the device connects. This provides the benefits of DHCP (central management, consistent options like gateway/DNS, easier changes) while giving the workstation a predictable IP, which is often needed for management, monitoring, or firewall rules.

  Creating a new scope is used to define an address pool and options for an entire subnet, but it does not guarantee one device always gets the same IP. NAT translates private IPs to public IPs and is unrelated to consistent DHCP assignments for a specific workstation. APIPA automatic private IP addressing 169.254.x.x occurs when DHCP fails and is not a controlled way to ensure a consistent, usable network address.

  Therefore, assigning a reservation is the correct answer.

• Question 302:

  Marketing department users report network performance degradation in the morning and early afternoon, but sales and customer service department users do not report any issues. All structured cabling Is Cat 5e. All departments are connected to a core switch.

  The running network configuration shows the following: Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?

  A. The marketing department subnet has an error.
  B. The structured Cat 5e cabling is outdated.
  C. The interfaces are configured with Incorrect IP addresses.
  D. The marketing department Interface is running at 10/100.
  D. The marketing department Interface is running at 10/100.

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  Explanation

  From the configuration, the Sales and Customer Service ports are hard-set to full duplex, 1000 Mbps, while the Marketing interface (GigabitEthernet0/3) is set to duplex auto and speed auto. CompTIA A+ explains that mismatched or lower-negotiated speeds and duplex settings can cause noticeable network slowdowns, collisions, and retransmissions--especially at busy times of the day when utilization is high.

  Because all cabling is Cat 5e, it fully supports Gigabit Ethernet, so the cabling is not the limiting factor. The IP addresses are all in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24) and formatted correctly, so there is no subnet or addressing problem. That rules out options A and C.

  With speed auto, the Marketing port may be negotiating only 10/100 Mbps, or even a duplex mismatch (e.g., half duplex vs full). This would severely limit throughput compared to the gigabit links used by the other departments. In peak periods, that slower link would become congested first, which matches the users' reports of performance degradation only in Marketing.

  Therefore, the most likely cause is that the Marketing interface is operating at 10/100 instead of 1000 Mbps, making option D correct.

• Question 303:

  A technician is upgrading the Wi-Fi card on a laptop.

  Which of the following should the technician do first?

  A. Disconnect the Wi-Fi antenna cables.
  B. Set the physical Wi-Fi switch to disabled.
  C. Remove the power cable.
  D. Install card drivers.
  C. Remove the power cable.

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  Explanation

  The first step a technician should take before upgrading the Wi-Fi card on a laptop, or performing any internal hardware modifications, is to remove the power cable to ensure the device is not powered on. This is a crucial safety measure to prevent any electrical damage to the laptop or the technician. It also helps in avoiding any unintended changes or data loss that might occur if the device is powered on during the upgrade process.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, specifically the hardware domain that discusses best practices for safety and the procedures to follow when upgrading or replacing internal hardware components, such as a Wi-Fi card.

  General safety guidelines for performing hardware upgrades or repairs, emphasizing the importance of ensuring the device is powered off and disconnected from any power sources to avoid electrical hazards.

• Question 304:

  An SAS RAID array has severely degraded and gone offline A systems administrator examines the syslog, and the point of failure is not obvious.

  Which of the following techniques should the administrator use to identify the issue (Select two).

  A. Run a magnet over each drive.
  B. Check if one of the drives is not level
  C. Listen for clicking and grinding noises
  D. Check the OS logs
  E. Update the RAID controller firmware.
  F. Check the historical SMART data
  C. Listen for clicking and grinding noises
  F. Check the historical SMART data

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  Explanation

  Clicking and grinding noises indicate mechanical drive failure. SMART data provides insights into the health and status of drives, helping identify failing components in the RAID array.

  Why Not A (Run a magnet): This would damage drives.

  Why Not B (Check if one drive is not level): Physical leveling is irrelevant.

  Why Not D (Check OS logs): OS logs may provide limited information for RAID arrays.

  Why Not E (Update RAID controller firmware): While important, it does not diagnose drive failure.

  References:

  Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting.

• Question 305:

  Which of the following cloud models exclusively utilizes a local data center?

  A. Private
  B. Public
  C. Hybrid
  D. Community
  A. Private

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  Explanation

  A Private Cloud is operated solely for a single organization. It is hosted on-premises or in a dedicated off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance - often hosted in the organization's own local data center.

  Option B (Public):Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.

  Option C (Hybrid):Combines private and public cloud resources.

  Option D (Community):Shared by several organizations with similar goals.

  References:

  Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

• Question 306:

  A company wants to have fast read speeds for its locally stored data.

  Which of the following configurations has the lowest cost to fulfill this requirement?

  A. RAID 0
  B. RAID 1
  C. RAID 5
  D. RAID 10
  A. RAID 0

• Question 307:

  A technician is upgrading memory on a laptop that is experiencing performance issues.

  Which of the following RAM types should most likely be specified for installation?

  A. ECCDIMMDDR5
  B. High latency DDR5
  C. Registered DIMM DDR5
  D. SODIMM DDR5
  D. SODIMM DDR5

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  Explanation

  For laptops, the most common type of RAM used is Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SODIMM) due to its smaller size compared to DIMMs used in desktops. DDR5 is the latest generation of RAM, offering higher speed and efficiency. ECC (Error-Correcting Code) DIMM DDR5 and Registered DIMM DDR5 are typically used in servers and high-end workstations for error correction and stability, not in standard laptops. High latency DDR5 is not a desirable specification for RAM as lower latency is preferred for faster performance.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 3.2: Given a scenario, install the appropriate RAM.

• Question 308:

  An organization upgrades all desktops to Windows 11 and must ensure protection from malicious software at startup.

  Which option should be enabled?

  A. Trusted Platform Module
  B. Hardware security module
  C. Secure Boot
  D. BIOS password
  C. Secure Boot

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  Explanation

  CompTIA A+ explains that Secure Boot is a UEFI security feature that prevents unauthorized or malicious bootloaders, rootkits, and unsigned OS loaders from starting during the boot process. Secure Boot verifies digital signatures on the OS and critical boot files before allowing startup, ensuring the system has not been tampered with.

  TPM (Option A) provides encryption key storage and is used for BitLocker, but alone does not block malicious bootloaders. HSMs (Option B) are enterprise cryptographic devices, not PC boot protection features. BIOS passwords (Option D) restrict access to configuration but do not protect against malicious boot-level malware.

  Windows 11 specifically requires Secure Boot, making it the correct protection mechanism for preventing startup-level malware.

  Thus, Secure Boot is the proper choice.

• Question 309:

  A technician installs an upgraded wireless access point. The technician then notices the activity light comes on briefly and turns off. The access point continues to exhibit this behavior repeatedly and does not come online.

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

  A. High latency
  B. Port flapping
  C. External interference
  D. Channel conflict
  B. Port flapping

• Question 310:

  A technician is asked to purchase and install a line-of-sight wireless system that provides a stable network connection between two buildings.

  Which of the following needs to be considered prior to purchasing the system?

  A. IP address range
  B. SSID broadcast
  C. Firewall rules
  D. Regulatory power limits
  D. Regulatory power limits

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  Explanation

  A line-of-sight wireless system is a type of wireless communication that requires a clear and unobstructed path between the transmitter and the receiver. This can be achieved by using directional antennas that focus the radio signals in a narrow beam. A line-of-sight wireless system can provide a stable network connection between two buildings that are within the range and visibility of each other. However, before purchasing and installing a line-of-sight wireless system, one of the factors that needs to be considered is the regulatory power limits. The power limit is the maximum amount of radio frequency (RF) energy that a transmitter can emit. Different countries and regions have different regulations and standards for the allowable power levels of wireless devices. Exceeding the power limit can cause interference with other wireless services, such as aviation, radio, television, etc. It can also pose health and safety risks to humans and animals. Therefore, a technician should check the local laws and regulations for the power limits of the wireless system before buying and installing it. The technician should also use a proper tool to measure the actual power output of the transmitter and adjust it accordingly. The technician should also ensure that the transmitter and receiver are aligned properly and have a clear line of sight without any obstacles. The other options are not relevant to the line-of-sight wireless system. The IP address range is a set of numerical identifiers that are assigned to devices on a network. It does not affect the physical transmission of wireless signals. The SSID broadcast is a feature that allows a wireless network to announce its name and availability to nearby devices. It does not affect the stability of the network connection between two buildings. The firewall rules are a set of policies that control the incoming and outgoing traffic on a network. They do not affect the line-of-sight wireless system.

  References:

  Wireless line-of-sight, non-line-of-sight, beyond-line-of-sight propagation Point-to-point Wi-Fi bridging between buildings--the cheap and easy way How Does Wireless Internet, or Line of Sight Internet Work? Line-of-Sight Transmission - Engineering LibreTexts.

  What is Line of Sight (LoS)? - Definition from Techopedia