CompTIA 220-1201 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA 220-1201 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 281:

  When installing a network printer, a technician needs to ensure the printer is available after a network is restarted.

  Which of the following should the technician set up on the printer to meet this requirement?

  A. Static IP address
  B. Private address
  C. Wi-Fi on the printer
  D. Dynamic addressing
  A. Static IP address

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  Explanation

  Assigning astatic IP addressto a network printer ensures it always retains the same address, allowing users and print servers to consistently reach it even after a reboot or network refresh.

  Option B (Private address):Refers to address ranges (e.g., 192.168.x.x) - doesn't guarantee address persistence.

  Option C (Wi-Fi):Is a connection method, not a method of IP assignment.

  Option D (Dynamic addressing):Via DHCP, which can change over time unless reservations are made (less reliable).

  References:

  Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.

• Question 282:

  A customer is using a cloud storage program that maintains a copy of local file on the cloud storage servers. The WF network is not very fast, and the customer users bandwidth intensive video streaming all day.

  Which of the following parameters should be adjust to keep the cloud storage program from using too much bandwidth?

  A. Synchronization settings
  B. Wireless settings
  C. Video streaming settings
  D. QoS settings
  D. QoS settings

• Question 283:

  An IT technician is inspecting the internal components of a desktop computer to assess a suspected power issue with the motherboard.

  Which of the following connectors should the IT technician inspect further?

  A. RJ45
  B. Straight tip
  C. DB9
  D. Molex
  D. Molex

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  Explanation

  The connector that the IT technician should inspect further is Molex. The Molex connector is used to provide power to the motherboard and other components in the computer. If there is a suspected power issue with the motherboard, the IT technician should inspect the Molex connector to ensure that it is properly connected and providing power to the motherboard1

• Question 284:

  Which of the following is an example of VDI?

  A. Streaming a GUI to thin clients from a server
  B. Provisioning a sandbox as a test environment
  C. Providing high-performance workstations with a local OS
  D. Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor
  A. Streaming a GUI to thin clients from a server

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  Explanation

  Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) delivers a desktop operating system hosted on a centralized server and streams the graphical user interface (GUI) to endpoint devices such as thin clients, zero clients, or standard PCs. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, VDI allows users to access their desktop environments remotely while all processing and data remain on the server.

  Option A accurately describes this model: a GUI streamed from a server to thin clients. This approach improves centralized management, enhances security, and simplifies endpoint hardware requirements.

  Provisioning a sandbox is an example of test or development virtualization, not desktop virtualization. High-performance workstations with a local OS are physical desktops, not VDI. Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor describes server virtualization, not desktop delivery.

  CompTIA highlights VDI as a common enterprise solution that separates the desktop environment from the physical device, enabling flexibility, scalability, and centralized control.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide - Virtualization, VDI, and Cloud Concepts

• Question 285:

  A security team wants to implement compliance controls that only permits the installation of company-approved software on user laptops.

  Which of the following should the IT department deploy?

  A. EDR
  B. VPN
  C. MDM
  D. SaaS
  C. MDM

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  Explanation

  Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows IT departments to enforce compliance controls, such as restricting the installation of unapproved software, on laptops and mobile devices.

  Why Not A (EDR): Endpoint Detection and Response focuses on detecting and mitigating security threats, not compliance controls.

  Why Not B (VPN): Virtual Private Networks provide secure connections but do not enforce software installation policies.

  Why Not D (SaaS): Software as a Service refers to software delivery models and does not enforce compliance controls.

  References:

  Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management and security.

• Question 286:

  An office manager wants to scan a contract that is approximately 300 pages. The office manager is concerned the process will take a long time because each page must be scanned individually.

  Which of the following can the office manager use to increase the speed of scanning?

  A. Flatbed scanner
  B. Duplexing
  C. Automatic document feeder
  D. Orientation configuration
  C. Automatic document feeder

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  Explanation

  An automatic document feeder (ADF) is designed to speed up scanning jobs that involve many pages by feeding sheets through the scanner automatically, one after another, without requiring the user to lift the lid and position each page manually. For a 300-page contract, the biggest time loss is the manual handling of every page on a flatbed. With an ADF-equipped scanner or multifunction printer, the user can load a stack of pages into the feeder tray and the device will process them continuously, greatly improving productivity and reducing user effort. This is a common CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept when comparing scanner hardware features and selecting the correct device for high-volume tasks. A flatbed scanner (A) is typically slower for large documents because it requires manual placement of each page. Duplexing (B) can be helpful when scanning double-sided documents because it captures both sides automatically, but it does not address the "each page must be scanned individually" issue as effectively as an ADF does for high page counts. Orientation configuration (D) only changes how pages are rotated or aligned in the output file and does not increase scan throughput. Therefore, an ADF is the best choice to increase scanning speed for a large contract.

• Question 287:

  A SOHO user's network printer has been without power for the last few days. After turning the printer back on, the user cannot connect to it.

  Which of the following is the most probable cause?

  A. The printer has a static IP address.
  B. The printer has a dynamic IP address.
  C. The printer has an APIPA.
  D. The printer has a public IP address.
  B. The printer has a dynamic IP address.

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  Explanation

  If the printer uses a dynamic IP address and has been without power, the DHCP lease may have expired, and the printer may have been assigned a new IP address. Devices attempting to connect using the old IP address will fail.

  Why Not A (The printer has a static IP address): A static IP address would remain unchanged, so this would not cause the issue.

  Why Not C (The printer has an APIPA): APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) would occur only if the printer cannot contact the DHCP server, but this isn't described in the scenario.

  Why Not D (The printer has a public IP address): A public IP address is irrelevant in a local network scenario.

  References:

  Core 1 (220-1101), Section 2.6, IP address management.

• Question 288:

  Which of the following is used to assign an IP address to a network PC?

  A. VLAN
  B. DNS
  C. DHCP
  D. TCP
  C. DHCP

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is C. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol).

  According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:

  DHCP is used to automatically assign IP addresses and related network configuration (such as subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers) to devices on a network.

  This eliminates the need for manually configuring IP addresses on each PC and helps prevent conflicts.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network): VLANs segment a network into logical subnets but do not assign IP addresses.

  B. DNS (Domain Name System): DNS translates domain names to IP addresses; it does not assign IP addresses to devices.

  D. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): TCP is a transport layer protocol used for reliable communication between devices, not for IP assignment.

  References:

  CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives - Networking: "Given a scenario, configure TCP/IP, including DHCP, static addressing, and subnetting." Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Protocols and IP Addressing.

• Question 289:

  A company is designing a data center environment where a critical requirement is highly available computing.

  Which of the following types of memory should an administrator choose to install in the servers?

  A. DDR5
  B. ECC
  C. DDR4
  D. Dual-channel
  B. ECC

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  Explanation

  ECC (Error Correcting Code) memory is a type of memory that can detect and correct errors that may occur during data transmission or storage. ECC memory is essential for high-availability computing, as it prevents data corruption and system crashes 2.

  References:

  ECC Memory

• Question 290:

  A user is experiencing multiple issues with an in-place upgrade of a laptop's operating system. The built-in camera is unresponsive, and the user is unable to pair the device with any Bluetooth accessories.

  Which of the following ate most likely causing three issues? (Select two).

  A. Incorrect configuration of the settings
  B. OS and device version incompatibility
  C. Disabled settings following the upgrade
  D. Full storage
  E. Outdated drivers
  F. Corrupted registry entries
  C. Disabled settings following the upgrade
  E. Outdated drivers

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  Explanation

  Outdated drivers: Device functionality issues after an OS upgrade are often caused by incompatible or outdated drivers.

  Disabled settings: Some features may be disabled during the upgrade process, requiring re-enablement.

  Why Not A (Incorrect configuration): This is unlikely given the issues arose only after the upgrade.

  Why Not B (OS and device incompatibility): Upgrades check for compatibility before installation.

  Why Not D (Full storage): Storage issues typically prevent installation, not device functionality.

  Why Not F (Corrupted registry entries): While possible, this is less common than the selected answers.

  References:

  Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.5, troubleshooting OS upgrades.