A 52-year-old man presents to the ED with a complaint of rectal bleeding and hematuria. He has a medical history significant for atrial fibrillation diagnosed 10 years ago and states that he takes metoprolol as well as warfarin for this condition.
Upon examination, you find that his blood pressure is 122/78, his pulse is 84, his respiratory rate is 18, and his O2 saturation is 98% on room air. He has an irregularly irregular heart rhythm, gingival bleeding, and some bruises on his extremities. He has a positive fecal occult blood test, and laboratory studies return showing an international normalized ratio (INR) of 16.5. You order that the patient's warfarin be held.
Which of the following is the most appropriate additional intervention at this time?