The patient is a 52-year-old male presenting to the emergency room with complaints of severe leg pain. The patient states he has had ongoing left knee pain of 6 months' duration, unrelieved by NSAIDs but improved with vicodin. He denies any trauma but claims to have arthritis. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination of his knee demonstrates no significant findings except for decreased range of motion but with little effort. There is no swelling, erythema, or signs of trauma. An x-ray is obtained which is read as "normal," without evidence of arthritis. He asks for narcotic analgesics, but when he is offered a trial of NSAIDs and a referral to a specialty clinic, he becomes angry and walks out of the emergency room.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management should this patient return?