Q60
Single choice
A22-year-old nulliparous woman who desires future fertility is found to have a pap smear consistent with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL). The final pathology report indicates a single focus of squamous carcinoma invasive into the cervical stroma to a depth of 2.0 mm. An ECC is negative. There is no lymphvascular space invasion, and the cone margins are negative.
The most appropriate therapy for this patient is which of the following?