Q23
Single choice
A 40-year-old woman presents with nausea, vomiting, and weakness. She has been amenorrheic since the birth of her last child 1 year ago and has not felt well since that time. On examination, she appears chronically ill, her thyroid is not palpable, and there is no galactorrhea. Laboratory studies on admission include:
The most appropriate next step is to start treatment with which of the following?