CompTIA SY0-701 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-701 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 161:

  A certificate authority needs to post information about expired certificates.

  Which of the following would accomplish this task?

  A. TPM
  B. CRL
  C. PKI
  D. CSR
  B. CRL

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  Explanation

  A Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is a digitally signed list maintained by a Certificate Authority (CA) that contains revoked or expired certificates. This prevents clients from trusting compromised or outdated certificates. TPM (A) is a hardware security module, unrelated to certificate revocation. PKI (C) is the overall system managing digital certificates, but it does not store revocation lists. CSR (D) is a request to obtain a certificate, not to revoke one.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Security Architecture domain.

• Question 162:

  A company wants to add an MFA solution for all employees who access the corporate network remotely. Log-in requirements include something you know, are, and have. The company wants a solution that does not require purchasing third-party applications or specialized hardware.

  Which of the following MFA solutions would best meet the company's requirements?

  A. Smart card with PIN and password
  B. Security questions and a one-time passcode sent via email
  C. Voice and ngerprint verification with an SMS one-time passcode
  D. Mobile application-generated, one-time passcode with facial recognition
  B. Security questions and a one-time passcode sent via email

• Question 163:

  Which of the following security measures is required when using a cloud-based platform for IoT management?

  A. Encrypted connection
  B. Federated identity
  C. Firewall
  D. Single sign-on
  A. Encrypted connection

• Question 164:

  Which of the following is a key reason to follow data retention policies during asset decommissioning?

  A. To ensure data is securely destroyed when no longer needed
  B. To make backup copies of all company data before disposing of hardware
  C. To allow employees to access old files even after the hardware is recycled
  D. To keep all customer data available in case it is required in the future
  A. To ensure data is securely destroyed when no longer needed

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  Explanation

  The best answer is A. To ensure data is securely destroyed when no longer needed. During asset decommissioning, organizations must handle storage media and data according to established data retention policies. These policies define how long data must be kept and when it should be securely destroyed. Following them helps ensure that data is not kept longer than necessary and is properly sanitized or destroyed when retention requirements have been met. This is important for: reducing risk of unauthorized data exposure meeting legal and regulatory obligations preventing sensitive information from being recovered from retired assets limiting unnecessary storage and liability.

  Why the other options are incorrect:

  B. To make backup copies of all company data before disposing of hardwareNot all data should be backed up indefinitely. Retention policies are about keeping data only as long as required.

  C. To allow employees to access old files even after the hardware is recycledThis is not the primary purpose of retention policies during decommissioning.

  D. To keep all customer data available in case it is required in the futureKeeping all data forever is not a proper retention strategy and can create legal and security problems. From the SY0-701 perspective, asset disposal and media sanitization are closely tied to retention schedules and secure destruction practices, so A is the correct answer.

• Question 165:

  Which of the following explains how regular patching helps mitigate risks when securing an enterprise environment?

  A. It improves server performance by reducing software bugs.
  B. It addresses known software vulnerabilities before they are exploited.
  C. It eliminates the need for firewalls and intrusion detection.
  D. It removes the need for antivirus tools.
  B. It addresses known software vulnerabilities before they are exploited.

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is B because regular patching directly reduces security risk by remediating known vulnerabilities before attackers can exploit them. Within the Security+ SY0-701 objectives, patch management is a foundational component of vulnerability management and secure operations. Vendors routinely release patches to fix security flaws that have already been identified, documented, and, in many cases, actively targeted by threat actors.

  Attackers frequently scan enterprise environments for systems that are missing patches related to publicly disclosed vulnerabilities. Once a vulnerability is known, exploit code often becomes widely available, dramatically increasing the likelihood of compromise. Regular patching shortens the "window of exposure," which is the time between vulnerability disclosure and remediation. By applying patches promptly, organizations significantly reduce the attack surface and limit opportunities for exploitation.

  Option A is incorrect because while patches may incidentally improve stability or performance, that is not their primary security purpose.

  Option C is incorrect because patching does not replace other security controls; firewalls and intrusion detection systems remain essential for layered defense.

  Option D is also incorrect because antivirus tools serve a different role, such as detecting and responding to malware, and cannot be replaced by patching alone.

  The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that effective patch management requires structured processes, including testing, maintenance windows, rollback planning, and prioritization based on risk and asset criticality. Patching is classified as a preventive technical control, stopping attacks before they occur rather than reacting after compromise.

  In summary, regular patching mitigates enterprise risk by proactively addressing known software vulnerabilities before they can be exploited. This makes it one of the most effective and widely emphasized security practices in the Security+ SY0-701 exam and in real-world security operations.

• Question 166:

  Which of the following provides resilience by hosting critical VMs within different IaaS providers while being maintained by internal application owners?

  A. Multicloud architectures
  B. SaaS provider diversity
  C. On-premises server load balancing
  D. Corporate-owned, off-site locations
  A. Multicloud architectures

• Question 167:

  A site reliability engineer is designing a recovery strategy that requires quick failover to an identical site if the primary facility goes down.

  Which of the following types of sites should the engineer consider?

  A. Recovery site
  B. Hot site
  C. Cold site
  D. Warm site
  B. Hot site

• Question 168:

  Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?

  A. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
  B. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
  C. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
  D. Install endpoint management software on all systems.
  D. Install endpoint management software on all systems.

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  Explanation

  Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137

• Question 169:

  A security team has been alerted to a flood of incoming emails that have various subject lines and are addressed to multiple email inboxes. Each email contains a URL shortener link that is redirecting to a dead domain.

  Which of the following is the best step for the security team to take?

  A. Create a blocklist for all subject lines.
  B. Send the dead domain to a DNS sinkhole.
  C. Quarantine all emails received and notify all employees.
  D. Block the URL shortener domain in the web proxy.
  B. Send the dead domain to a DNS sinkhole.

• Question 170:

  Which of the following would be the best solution to deploy a low-cost standby site that includes hardware and internet access?

  A. Recovery site
  B. Cold site
  C. Hot site
  D. Warm site
  B. Cold site

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  Explanation

  A cold site is a standby site that provides basic infrastructure such as space, power, and internet access but typically does not have active hardware or data. It is a low-cost option compared to hot and warm sites, as it requires minimal ongoing expenses. In the event of a disaster, the organization can bring in hardware and data to the cold site to restore operations. This makes it suitable for scenarios where a low-cost standby solution is needed.