CompTIA SY0-701 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-701 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 181:

  A company wants to improve the availability of its application with a solution that requires minimal effort in the event a server needs to be replaced or added.

  Which of the following would be the best solution to meet these objectives?

  A. Load balancing
  B. Fault tolerance
  C. Proxy servers
  D. Replication
  A. Load balancing

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  Explanation

  Load balancing improves application availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers. If one server fails, traffic is automatically routed to other available servers with minimal intervention.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0- 701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "High Availability Solutions".

• Question 182:

  A user is requesting Telnet access to manage a remote development web server. Insecure protocols are not allowed for use within any environment.

  Which of the following should be configured to allow remote access to this server?

  A. HTTPS
  B. SNMPv3
  C. SSH
  D. RDP
  E. SMTP
  C. SSH

• Question 183:

  An organization's web servers host an online ordering system. The organization discovers that the servers are vulnerable to a malicious JavaScript injection, which could allow attackers to access customer payment information.

  Which of the following mitigation strategies would be most effective for preventing an attack on the organization's web servers? (Choose two.)

  A. Regularly updating server software and patches
  B. Implementing strong password policies
  C. Encrypting sensitive data at rest and in transit
  D. Utilizing a web-application firewall
  E. Performing regular vulnerability scans
  F. Removing payment information from the servers
  A. Regularly updating server software and patches
  D. Utilizing a web-application firewall

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  Explanation

  Regularly updating server software and applying patches addresses known vulnerabilities, reducing the risk of exploitation through unpatched flaws.

  A web-application firewall (WAF) is particularly effective against malicious injections, as it monitors and filters HTTP traffic to block injection attempts, such as JavaScript injections.

  Together, these strategies provide robust protection against attacks targeting the web servers.

• Question 184:

  An organization is evaluating the cost of licensing a new solution to prevent ransomware.

  Which of the following is the most helpful in making this decision?

  A. ALE
  B. SLE
  C. RTO
  D. ARO
  A. ALE

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  Explanation

  ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy) is the risk management metric most helpful when deciding whether the licensing cost of a ransomware prevention solution is justified. ALE calculates the expected yearly financial loss from a particular threat. It is computed as:

  ALE = SLE x ARO

  SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) estimates the monetary impact of one ransomware incident.

  ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) estimates how often the incident is expected to happen each year.

  By comparing ALE to the annual licensing cost of the new security solution, the organization can make a financially informed decision based on cost-benefit analysis. If ALE exceeds the solution's cost, the purchase is justified.

  RTO (C) relates to recovery time after outages, not cost justification. SLE (B) is only part of the calculation and insufficient alone. ARO (D) shows frequency but not financial impact.

  Security+ SY0-701 highlights ALE as the primary metric for evaluating security investments.

  Thus, ALE is the key factor in determining whether purchasing ransomware protection is financially beneficial.

• Question 185:

  Which of the following is a type of vulnerability that refers to the unauthorized installation of applications on a device through means other than the official application store?

  A. Cross-site scripting
  B. Buffer overflow
  C. Jailbreaking
  D. Side loading
  D. Side loading

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  Explanation

  Side loading refers to the process of installing applications on a device from outside the official app store, which can introduce security vulnerabilities by bypassing standard app validation processes.

  References:

  Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.

• Question 186:

  Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?

  A. SOW
  B. SLA
  C. MOA
  D. MOU
  B. SLA

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  Explanation

  A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.

  References:

  Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under "About the exam", bullet point 3: "Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance." CompTIA Security

  + Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page

  14: "Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider."

• Question 187:

  An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane.

  Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?

  A. Secured zones
  B. Subject role
  C. Adaptive identity
  D. Threat scope reduction
  D. Threat scope reduction

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  Explanation

  In a Zero Trust environment, the data plane is the part of the architecture where actual communication happens. It carries the real traffic between users, devices, applications, and resources. Because of that, an analyst evaluating Zero Trust in the data plane should focus on whether the environment is designed to limit how far a threat can spread after access is gained.

  That is exactly what threat scope reduction means. Its purpose is to reduce the potential impact of compromise by making sure that access is narrow, controlled, and limited to only what is necessary. In practice, this means preventing unnecessary communication paths, restricting lateral movement, and containing attacks so that one compromised account, device, or workload cannot easily reach many other systems.

  This is a core Zero Trust objective in the data plane because Zero Trust does not assume that any internal traffic is automatically safe. Instead, every connection should be tightly controlled and continuously enforced. The analyst would therefore examine whether the implementation reduces exposure between systems, minimizes reachable assets, and limits the blast radius of an incident.

  So, from a data plane perspective, the most relevant thing to evaluate is whether the architecture actively enforces controls that shrink the threat's reachable scope. That is why threat scope reduction is the best answer.

• Question 188:

  A CVE in a key back-end component of an application has been disclosed. The systems administrator is identifying all of the systems in the environment that are susceptible to this risk.

  Which of the following should the systems administrator perform?

  A. Packet capture
  B. Vulnerability scan
  C. Metadata analysis
  D. Automated reporting
  B. Vulnerability scan

• Question 189:

  An organization wants to donate its aging network hardware.

  Which of the following should the organization perform to prevent any network details from leaking?

  A. Destruction
  B. Sanitization
  C. Certification
  D. Data retention
  B. Sanitization

• Question 190:

  A company relies on open-source software libraries to build the software used by its customers.

  Which of the following vulnerability types would be the most difficult to remediate due to the company's reliance on open-source libraries?

  A. Buffer overflow
  B. SQL injection
  C. Cross-site scripting
  D. Zero day
  D. Zero day

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  Explanation

  Zero-day vulnerabilities are unknown flaws in software, making them harder to patch, especially when using open-source libraries without dedicated support teams.