CompTIA SY0-701 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-701 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1:

  SIMULATION

  A systems administrator is configuring a site-to-site VPN between two branch offices. Some of the settings have already been configured correctly. The systems administrator has been provided the following requirements as part of completing the configuration:

  1. Most secure algorithms should be selected

  2. All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN

  3. A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators

  INSTRUCTIONS

  Click on the two VPN Concentrators to configure the appropriate settings.

  If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

  

  

  

  

  

  A. See the Explanation part for all the Solution
  B. PlaceHolder
  C. PlaceHolder
  D. PlaceHolder
  A. See the Explanation part for all the Solution

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  Explanation

  VPN Concentrator 1 (Branch Office 1)

  Configuration:

  Phase 1:

  Peer IP address: 5.5.5.20 (IP of VPN Concentrator 2)

  Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)

  Negotiation mode: MAIN

  Encryption algorithm: AES256

  Hash algorithm: SHA256

  DH key group: 14

  Phase 2:

  Mode: Tunnel

  Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) Encryption algorithm: AES256 Hash algorithm: SHA256 Local network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24 Remote network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24

  VPN Concentrator 2 (Branch Office 2)

  Configuration:

  Phase 1:

  Peer IP address: 5.5.5.10 (IP of VPN Concentrator 1)

  Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)

  Negotiation mode: MAIN

  Encryption algorithm: AES256

  Hash algorithm: SHA256

  DH key group: 14

  Phase 2:

  Mode: Tunnel

  Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) Encryption algorithm: AES256 Hash algorithm: SHA256 Local network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24 Remote network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24

• Question 2:

  Which of the following best describes a social engineering attack that uses a targeted electronic messaging campaign aimed at a Chief Executive Officer?

  A. Whaling
  B. Spear phishing
  C. Impersonation
  D. Identity fraud
  A. Whaling

• Question 3:

  A U.S.-based cloud-hosting provider wants to expand its data centers to new international locations.

  Which of the following should the hosting provider consider first?

  A. Local data protection regulations
  B. Risks from hackers residing in other countries
  C. Impacts to existing contractual obligations
  D. Time zone differences in log correlation
  A. Local data protection regulations

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  Explanation

  Local data protection regulations are the first thing that a cloud-hosting provider should consider before expanding its data centers to new international locations. Data protection regulations are laws or standards that govern how personal or sensitive data is collected, stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Different countries or regions may have different data protection regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in the European Union, the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) in Canada, or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) in the United States. A cloud-hosting provider must comply with the local data protection regulations of the countries or regions where it operates or serves customers, or else it may face legal penalties, fines, or reputational damage. Therefore, a cloud-hosting provider should research and understand the local data protection regulations of the new international locations before expanding its data centers there.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 7, page 269. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 14.

• Question 4:

  A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes.

  Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?

  A. SPF
  B. GPO
  C. NAC
  D. FIM
  D. FIM

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  Explanation

  FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data.

  Some of the benefits of FIM are: It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files.

  It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions.

  It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state.

  It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes.

  References:

  5: Technologies and Tools, Section 5.3: Security Tools, p. 209-210 CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain

  2: Technologies and Tools, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, analyze and interpret output from security technologies, Sub-objective: File integrity monitor, p. 12

• Question 5:

  A company has yearly engagements with a service provider. The general terms and conditions are the same for all engagements. The company wants to simplify the process and revisit the general terms every three years.

  Which of the following documents would provide the best way to set the general terms?

  A. MSA
  B. NDA
  C. MOU
  D. SLA
  A. MSA

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  Explanation

  A Master Service Agreement (MSA) establishes the general terms and conditions for ongoing business engagements. This allows companies to reuse the same terms across multiple contracts, revisiting them periodically for updates.

  NDA (B) protects confidential information but does not define service terms.

  MOU (C) is a non-binding agreement, often used for partnerships, not formal service contracts.

  SLA (D) focuses on service performance expectations, not overall contract terms.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Security Program Management and Oversight domain.

• Question 6:

  Which of the following metrics are used to calculate the risk rating in a matrix format? Select two.

  A. Likelihood
  B. Quantitative
  C. SLE
  D. Impact
  E. ALE
  F. ARO
  A. Likelihood
  D. Impact

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  Explanation

  The correct answers are A. Likelihood and

  D. Impact. A risk matrix commonly calculates or represents risk using likelihood and impact. Likelihood measures the probability that a threat or risk event will occur. Impact measures the severity of the consequences if the event occurs. Together, they help determine the overall risk rating, such as low, medium, high, or critical. For example: Risk = Likelihood x Impact Why the other options are incorrect:

  B. Quantitative Quantitative describes a type of risk analysis that uses numerical or monetary values. It is not one of the two standard matrix factors.

  C. SLE Single Loss Expectancy is used in quantitative risk calculations. It estimates the cost of a single incident.

  E. ALE Annualized Loss Expectancy is used in quantitative risk analysis and is commonly calculated as SLE x ARO.

  F. ARO Annualized Rate of Occurrence estimates how often an event is expected to happen per year. It is also used in quantitative risk calculations. Therefore, the two metrics used in a risk matrix are likelihood and impact.

• Question 7:

  An administrator wants to automate an account permissions update for a large number of accounts.

  Which of the following would best accomplish this task?

  A. Security groups
  B. Federation
  C. User provisioning
  D. Vertical scaling
  A. Security groups

• Question 8:

  An audit reveals that cardholder database logs are exposing account numbers inappropriately.

  Which of the following mechanisms would help limit the impact of this error?

  A. Segmentation
  B. Hashing
  C. Journaling
  D. Masking
  D. Masking

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  Explanation

  Masking is a technique used to obscure sensitive data, such as account numbers, in order to prevent unauthorized access to the full details. By applying masking to the cardholder data in the logs, only part of the account number would be visible, limiting the exposure of sensitive information and thus reducing the potential impact of the error. This approach allows for secure handling of data in scenarios where the information needs to be referenced but not fully exposed.

• Question 9:

  A company is in the process of migrating to cloud-based services. The company's IT department has limited resources for migration and ongoing support.

  Which of the following best meets the company's needs?

  A. IPS
  B. WAF
  C. SASE
  D. IAM
  C. SASE

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  Explanation

  Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) combines network security functions with wide area network (WAN) capabilities in a cloud-delivered model, which simplifies management and provides scalable, secure access to cloud-based services.

  For a company with limited IT resources, SASE offers an integrated solution that reduces the need for extensive on-premises infrastructure and simplifies ongoing support. This approach allows the company to enhance security while efficiently supporting its cloud migration.

• Question 10:

  Which of the following is used to improve security and overall functionality without losing critical application data?

  A. Reformatting
  B. Decommissioning
  C. Patching
  D. Encryption
  C. Patching

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  Explanation

  Patching is used to improve both security and functionality by updating software to fix vulnerabilities, improve performance, or add features. This process ensures that critical application data is preserved while addressing issues that could compromise the application's security or functionality. Regular patching is a key part of maintaining a secure and efficient system.