NCLEX NCLEX-PN Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

NCLEX NCLEX-PN Online Questions & Answers

• Question 391:

  Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to develop heartburn as a result of gastroesophgeal reflux disease (GERD)?

  A. lettuce
  B. eggs
  C. chocolate
  D. butterscotch
  C. chocolate

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  Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. The other foods do not affect LES pressure.

• Question 392:

  Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).

  A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins.
  B. The icteric stage: Flu like symptoms occur.
  C. The preicteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels.
  D. The posticteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occurs.
  C. The preicteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels.

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  Explanation Explanation/Reference:During the preicteric stage of viral hepatitis, elevated urine bilirubin levels, nausea, chills, anorexia, fever and mild upper right quadrant pain occur. The icteric stage is marked with pruritis, clay stools, darkened urine and jaundice. The posticteric stage occurs when the patient returns to near normal physical status. There is no prodromal stage of viral hepatitis.

• Question 393:

  Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?

  A. open leg fracture
  B. open head injury
  C. stab wound to the chest
  D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
  C. stab wound to the chest

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  A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions.

• Question 394:

  Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?

  A. a client with renal impairment
  B. a client with hypertension
  C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
  D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
  C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II

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  The thiazide class of diuretics cause metabolic abnormalities such as elevated blood glucose levels. This elevation is caused in part by diuretic-induced potassium deficiency. Hypokalemia reduces the secretion of insulin by pancreatic beta cells, thereby increasing plasma glucose levels. Thiazides have been used for many years in clients with the conditions described in choices "a client with renal impairment" and "a client with hypertension". Thiazides decrease calcium excretion, thus decreasing the likelihood of renal calculi.

• Question 395:

  A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell's Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?

  A. Test the taste sensation over the back of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
  B. Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
  C. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the back of the tongue.
  D. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the front of the tongue.
  B. Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.

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  Explanation Explanation/Reference:The facial nerve (VII) is motor to the face and sensory to the anterior tongue.

• Question 396:

  The nurse asks the patient to bite down, places his hands around the jaw, and asks the patient to open his mouth against resistance.

  What cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

  A. Cranial Nerve VI
  B. Cranial Nerve V
  C. Cranial Nerve IV
  D. Cranial Nerve VII
  B. Cranial Nerve V

• Question 397:

  Select the stage of a pressure ulcer that is accurately pair with its characteristics.

  A. Stage I: Only slight blanching when pressure is applied to the skin.
  B. Stage II: The epidermis and part of the dermis is damaged or lost.
  C. Stage III: The wound has slough and eschar.
  D. Stage IV: The loss of skin usually exposes some fat.
  B. Stage II: The epidermis and part of the dermis is damaged or lost.

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  A Stage I pressure ulcer remains intact and the skin doesn't briefly lighten or blanch when touched. A Stage II pressure ulcer damages the epidermis and part of the dermis. A Stage III pressure ulcer is a deep wound that can expose some fat; and a Stage IV pressure ulcer exposes bone, muscle and tendons. It is also characterized with slough and eschar.

• Question 398:

  Babies should double their birth weight by the __________.

  A. 5th to 6th month
  B. 3rd to 4th month
  C. 4th to 5th month
  D. 5th to 7th month
  C. 4th to 5th month

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  Most babies should have doubled their birth weight by 6 months, but many may have doubled their birth weight by 5 months of age. Newborns gain about five to seven ounces per week for the first 3 to 4 months of life. By their first birthday, many babies have tripled their birth weight.

• Question 399:

  A 27-year-old female patient comes in complaining of calf pain. Which question, if asked by the LPN, would be the least helpful?

  A. Are you on birth control?
  B. Have you traveled recently?
  C. Do you smoke?
  D. What herbal supplements do you take?
  D. What herbal supplements do you take?

• Question 400:

  You are caring for a four-year-old female patient who was severely burned in a house fire.

  How would you determine the extent of this child's burns?

  A. By using the Lund and Browder chart.
  B. By using the Rule of Nines.
  C. By using the Rule of Tens.
  D. By using the Parkland Formula.
  A. By using the Lund and Browder chart.

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  The Lund and Browder burn chart is used to determine the extent of burns among the members of the pediatric population. Adults are assessed by using the Rule of Nines and not the Rule of Tens. Lastly the Parkland Formula is used to determine the fluid needs of burn patients and not to determine the extent of their burns.