Test Prep MCQS Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Test Prep MCQS Online Questions & Answers

• Question 141:

  A 27-year-old, generally healthy woman comes to the office with burning on urination. There are 50 white cells on the urinalysis. What is the next best step in management?

  A. Treat with TMP/SMX for 3 days
  B. Perform a renal ultrasound
  C. Treat with ciprofloxacin for 7 days
  D. Wait for results of urine culture
  A. Treat with TMP/SMX for 3 days

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  When there are clear symptoms of cystitis and white cells in the urine, it is not necessary to obtain a urine culture or to wait for results of either the culture or a sonogram. For uncomplicated cystitis, go straight to treatment for 3 days. Ultrasound is important in male patients, as it is unusual for a male patient to have a urinary tract infection in the absence of an anatomic abnormality.

• Question 142:

  At what CD4 count should antiretroviral treatment commence in asymptomatic HIV patients?

  A. Testosterone
  B. Growth hormone
  C. Somatostatin
  D. Oestrogen
  E. Somatostatin
  D. Oestrogen

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  The growth spurt at puberty is brought about by the secretion of androgens in the male and oestrogens in the female. However, it is oestrogens that ultimately terminate growth by causing the epiphyses in the long bones to fuse. Thus oestrogens rather than androgens are responsible for skeletal maturation, epiphyseal fusion and cessation of growth in males and females. All the other hormones are involved in growth alone

• Question 143:

  Patient with major depression what is the first line treatment?

  A. Tricyclic antidepressant
  B. SSRIs
  C. MAOI
  B. SSRIs

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  A SSRIs are the initial antidepressants of choice for uncomplicated depression because of their minimal anti-cholinergic effects

• Question 144:

  Cervical cancer diagnostic test:

  A. Cone biopsy
  B. Punch biopsy
  C. FNAC
  D. Pap smear
  A. Cone biopsy

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  In this procedure, also known as conization, the doctor removes a cone-shaped piece of tissue from the cervix. The base of the cone is formed by the exocervix (outer part of the cervix), and the point or apex of the cone is from the endocervical canal. The tissue removed in the cone includes the transformation zone (the border between the exocervix and endocervix, where cervical pre-cancers and cancers are most likely to start). A cone biopsy can also be used as a treatment to completely remove many pre-cancers and some very early cancers. Having had a cone biopsy will not prevent most women from getting pregnant, but if a large amount of tissue has been removed, women may have a higher risk of giving birth prematurely. The methods commonly used for cone biopsies are the loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP), also called the large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ), and the cold knife cone biopsy. Loop electrosurgical procedure (LEEP, LLETZ): In this method, the tissue is removed with a thin wire loop that is heated by electrical current and acts as a scalpel. For this procedure, a local anesthetic is used, and it can be done in your doctor's office. It takes only about 10 minutes. You might have mild cramping during and after the procedure, and mild-to-moderate bleeding for several weeks. Cold knife cone biopsy: This method uses a surgical scalpel or a laser instead of a heated wire to remove tissue. You will receive anesthesia during the operation (either a general anesthesia, where you are asleep, or a spinal or epidural anesthesia, where an injection into the area around the spinal cord makes you numb below the waist) and is done in a hospital, but no overnight stay is needed. After the procedure, you might have cramping and some bleeding for a few weeks.

• Question 145:

  A pregnant lady comes at 37 weeks with 3+ proteinuria, confusion and Blood pressure 170/110 mmhg. What is the best step in her management?

  A. Admit and monitor / mgso4 E-Send home
  B. Hydralazine
  C. Deliver the baby immediately
  D. C-section
  C. Deliver the baby immediately

• Question 146:

  A 42-year-old man presents with a target shaped rash that has developed over the last several days. He was on a camping trip in the woods last week in Maine.

  What is the next best step in management?

  A. Western blot
  B. Doxycycline E-Ceftriaxone
  C. ELISA
  D. Serology for IgM
  B. Doxycycline E-Ceftriaxone

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  A rash suggestive of Lyme is enough to indicate treatment. A 5-cm-wide targetshaped rash, particularly with a history of camping/hiking, is enough to indicate the need for antibiotic treatment with doxycycline. A characteristic rash is more specific than serology.

• Question 147:

  A 27-year-old man presents with abdominal pain. He says his urine is dark. Exam: BP=160/105mmHg.

  What is investigation?

  A. Urine microscopy
  B. Renal biopsy
  C. Urine protein
  D. US
  E. CT
  D. US

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  US. Abdominal pain, Dark urine (hematuria and hypertension suggests ADPKD. The sensitivity of ult ADPKD1 is 99% for at-risk patients older than 20 years.

• Question 148:

  At what CD4 count should anti-retroviral treatment commence in asymptomatic HIV patients?

  A. Below 500/mm3
  B. Below 100/mm3
  C. Below 50/mm3
  D. Below 200/mm3
  A. Below 500/mm3

• Question 149:

  33-year-old lady who is a drug addict wants to quit. She says she is ready to stop the drug abuse. What drug treatment would you give her?

  A. Benzodiazepines
  B. Methadone
  C. Disulfiram
  D. Lithium
  E. Diazipoxide
  A. Benzodiazepines

• Question 150:

  Ophthalmoplegic migraine is best characterised as?

  A. Headache associated with irreversible palsy of 3rd nerve
  B. Headache with optic neuritis
  C. Recurrent headache with transient palsy of 3, 4 and / or 6th cranial nerves
  C. Recurrent headache with transient palsy of 3, 4 and / or 6th cranial nerves

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  Recurrent headache with transient palsy of 3, 4 and / or 6th cranial nerves OPHTHALMOPLEGIC MIGRAINE It is a rare condition which was previously considered as a type of migraine. Recent studies suggest that is it likely to be an inflammatory cranial neuropathy. The International Headache Classification has reclassified ophthalmoplegic migraine as a type of neur earlier classification as a type of migraine.It is characterised by transient migraine like headache asso paresis of oculomotor, trochlear and/or abducens nerves.To arrive at a diagnosis of ophthalmoplegic m causes should be ruled out by appropriate investigations (like digital subtraction angiography / magne angiography of the brain).