Test Prep MCQS Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Test Prep MCQS Online Questions & Answers

• Question 231:

  A 10-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital because of bleeding. Pertinent laboratory findings include a platelet count of 50,000/L, prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds (control 11.5 seconds), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 51 seconds (control 36 seconds), thrombin time (TT) of 13.7 seconds (control 10.5 seconds), and factor VIII level of 14% (normal 38%-178%).

  Which of the following is the most likely cause of his bleeding?

  A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  B. Vitamin K deficiency
  C. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
  A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

• Question 232:

  A 58-year-old man comes to the office a few days after an episode of chest pain. This was his first episode of pain, and he has no risk factors. In the emergency department, he had a normal EKG and normal CK-MB and was released the next day.

  Which of the following is most appropriate in his further management?

  A. LDL level
  B. Repeat CK-MB
  C. Stress (exercise tolerance) testing
  D. Statin
  C. Stress (exercise tolerance) testing

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  Stress test when the case is equivocal or uncertain for the presence of CAD. Do not do an angiography unless the stress test is abnormal. Exercise tolerance, or "stress," testing detects coronary artery disease when the heart rate is raised and ST segment depression is detected. This case is asking you to know that a stress test is a way of increasing the sensitivity of detection of CAD beyond an EKG and enzymes.

• Question 233:

  A 65-year-old man presents with significant weight loss and complains of cough, SOB and chest pain. Exam constricted, drooping of left eyelid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
  B. Cervical rib
  C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
  D. Pancoast tumor
  E. Pneumonia
  D. Pancoast tumor

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  Pancoast tumor. Pancoast tumour is the apical lung cancer that is associated with destructive lesion thoracic inlet and involvement of the brachial plexus and cervical sympathetic nerves (the stellate ganglion) le horner's syndrome.

• Question 234:

  A 25-year-old girl saw a tragic RTA in which a young boy was killed. The night of the event she couldn't sleep after she suddenly lost her vision. She was previously fine and there was no history of medical or psychologic

  What is the diagnosis?

  A. Dissociation
  B. Generalize Anxiety disorder
  C. Post-traumatic Stress disorder
  D. Somatization
  E. Conversion
  E. Conversion

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  Conversion reaction. Conversion reaction is sometimes applied to patients who present with neurol such as numbness, blindness, paralysis, or fits, which are not consistent with a well-established organic cause significant distress. It is thought that these symptoms arise in response to stressful situations affecting mental health

• Question 235:

  Which of the following is the main difference between saphenous vein grafts and internal mammary artery grafts?

  A. There is less need for aspirin and metoprolol with internal mammary artery grafts.
  B. Internal mammary artery grafts remain open for 10 years.
  C. Heparin is necessary for vein grafts.
  D. Warfarin is necessary with saphenous vein grafts.
  B. Internal mammary artery grafts remain open for 10 years.

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  The main difference between saphenous vein grafts and internal mammary artery grafts is that vein grafts start to become occluded after 5 years but internal mammary artery grafts are often patent at 10 years. There is no difference in the need for medications.

• Question 236:

  A 78 year's retired teacher was admitted for a hernioplasty procedure. After the operation he became agitate and confused. What is the most appropriate management?

  A. Diazepam
  B. Clozapine
  C. Chlordiazepoxide
  D. Thiamine
  E. Vitamin B
  C. Chlordiazepoxide

• Question 237:

  A 27-year-old lady after C-section developed epigastric pain after 8h. What is the appropriate investigations?

  A. Liver enzyme
  B. Liver biopsy
  C. ABG
  D. Coagulation
  A. Liver enzyme

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  Epigastric pain is a warning sign of HELLP syndrome. So to rule out HELLP syndrome should be done.

• Question 238:

  A 65-year-old lady who is on thiazide suffers from falls in the morning. What is the cause for her symptoms?

  A. Epilepsy
  B. Orthostatic hypotension
  C. TIA
  C. TIA

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  Thiazide diuretic is associated with orthostatic hypotension.

• Question 239:

  The cause of peptic ulcer?

  A. Use of NSAIDS
  B. H. Pyelori
  C. Both
  C. Both

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  Peptic ulcer disease usually occurs in the stomach and proximal duodenum. The predominant causes in the United States are infection with Helicobacter pylori and use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Symptoms of peptic ulcer disease include epigastric discomfort (specifically, pain relieved by food intake or antacids and pain that causes awakening at night or that occurs between meals), loss of appetite, and weight loss. Older patients and patients with alarm symptoms indicating a complication or malignancy should have prompt endoscopy. Patients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs should discontinue their use. For younger patients with no alarm symptoms, a test-and-treat strategy based on the results of H. pylori testing is recommended. If H. pylori infection is diagnosed, the infection should be eradicated and antisecretory therapy (preferably with a proton pump inhibitor) given for four weeks. Patients with persistent symptoms should be referred for endoscopy. Surgery is indicated if complications develop or if the ulcer is unresponsive to medications. Bleeding is the most common indication for surgery. Administration of proton pump inhibitors and endoscopic therapy control most bleeds. Perforation and gastric outlet obstruction are rare but serious complications. Peritonitis is a surgical emergency requiring patient resuscitation; laparotomy and peritoneal toilet; omental patch placement; and, in selected patients, surgery for ulcer control.

  Reference: http://www.aafp.org/afp/2007/1001/p1005.html

• Question 240:

  Young sexually active girl has severe knee pain, swelling fever, warmth joint. What is the diagnosis?

  A. Osteoarthritis
  B. Rhumatoid Arthritis
  C. Septic arthritis
  B. Rhumatoid Arthritis