Test Prep Test Prep Certifications MCQS Questions & Answers

• Question 11:

  A 5-year-old boy suddenly begins coughing while eating peanuts. He is choking and gagging. When he is

  brought to the emergency department, but he is awake and is able to give his name. On physical

  examination, his vital signs are stable.

  On examination of the chest, inspiratory stridor and intercostal and suprasternal retractions are apparent.

  Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

  A. Position patient and perform back blows

  B. Clear or oropharynx with multiple blind sweeps with finger

  C. Stand behind patient and perform abdominal thrusts

  D. Allow patient to clear foreign object by spontaneous coughing

  E. Perform emergency tracheostomy and take to surgery.

  Correct Answer: D

  Since the patient can cough and breathe, he should be allowed to clear the foreign object spontaneously, if possible. In the management of foreign object obstruction, if the patient can cough and breathe, it is best to initially observe and allow spontaneous resolution, since intervention may actually be damaging.

• Question 12:

  Patient has history of parotid and salivary gland enlargement complains of dry eye, mouth and skin, lab results HLA-B8 and DR3 ANA positive, rheumatoid factor positive.

  What is the course of treatment?

  A. Plenty of oral fluid

  B. Physostigmin

  C. Eye drops with saliva replacement

  D. NSAID

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 13:

  A female has burning sensation in vulva, after examination there was vesicle dew drop and tender and swelling in of the vulva.

  What is the appropriate diagnosis?

  A. Wart

  B. Herpes simplex

  C. Post herpetic

  Correct Answer: C

  The risk of miscarriage resulting from chromosomal abnormalities of the embryo increases with advancing maternal age. However, it is important to note that as the number of miscarriages increases, the risk of euploid pregnancy loss increases.

• Question 14:

  The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include all of the following except:

  A. Hypoxaemia

  B. Hypothermia

  C. Hypercapnia

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 15:

  All are effective in Rx of hereditary angioedema except?

  A. FFP

  B. Ecallantide

  C. Danazol

  D. predisolone

  Correct Answer: D

• Question 16:

  A male presented with headache, tinnitus and nausea thinking that he has a brain tumor. He had just secured a job in a prestigious company and he thinks that he might not meet its standards. CNS exam, CT, all within normal.

  What is the diagnosis?

  A. Conversion reaction

  B. Generalized Anxiety disoreder

  C. Panic attack

  D. Hypochondriasis

  Correct Answer: D

  Diagnostic criteria for hypochondriasis include the following: The patient has a preoccupying fear of having a serious disease. The preoccupation persists despite appropriate medical evaluation and reassurance. The belief is not of delusional intensity (as in delusional disorder, somatic type) and is not Restricted to a concern about appearance (as in persons with BDD). The preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment.

• Question 17:

  A 45-year-old man on lithium for a bipolar disorder developed congestive heart failure 2 weeks ago. He now presents with drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision and coarse tremors.

  Which of the following concurrent medications, if taken in combination with lithium, would be most likely to cause these symptoms?

  A. Acetazolamide

  B. Furosemide

  C. Hydrochlorothiazide

  D. Spironolactone

  Correct Answer: C

  Hydrochlorothiazide Approximately 95% of a single dose of lithium is eliminated in the urine. The drug is handled by the kidneys in the same manner as sodium, ie most of the filtered lithium is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. Hence loading with sodium will increase lithium excretion, while sodium depletion will promote the retention of lithium. All diuretics decrease renal lithium clearance. However, thiazide diuretics cause the greatest retention of lithium amongst all diuretics.

• Question 18:

  Patient comes to the ER with weak rapid pulse, what is your next step?

  A. Wait until team of resuscitation group comes

  B. Give him 2 breaths

  C. Do CPR (2 breaths/30 compressions)

  Correct Answer: A

• Question 19:

  On a routine urinalysis, a 30-year-old man was found to have hematuria. His urinalysis is negative for casts and protein, but is positive for moderate blood. His urine culture is negative. IV pyelogram and serum creatinine are both normal and you send urine cytology just to be safe It is also normal.

  Which of the following is most appropriate in this case?

  A. Renal ultrasound

  B. Reassurance and periodic monitoring

  C. Cystoscopy

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 20:

  65 years old male with hypertension, congestive heart failure and peptic ulcer disease came to your office for his regular blood pressure check. Although his blood pressure is now under control, he complains of an inability to maintain an erection. He currently is taking propranolol, verapamil, hydrochlorothiazide, and r pressure is 125/76 mmHg. His pulse is 56 and regular. The rest of the cardiovascular examination and the rest of the physical examination are normal.

  Which of the following generally considered the MOST common cause of sexual dysfunction?

  A. Panic disorder

  B. Major depressive disorder

  C. Generalized anxiety disorder

  D. Dysthymic disorder

  E. pharmacological agents

  Correct Answer: E

  The most common cause of sexual dysfunction is psychological disease. Dysthymic disorder is one of mood disorders, has similar symptoms of major depressive disorder, but less in severity, present at least for 2 years. Symptoms free period are possible but may not exceed 2 months in 2 years time frame.