Test Prep MCQS Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Test Prep MCQS Online Questions & Answers

• Question 101:

  Patient works in a dusty environment had red eyes itching no trauma no mucopurulent discharge. What to give to relieve his symptoms?

  A. Tobramycin eye drop
  B. Acyclovir eye drop
  C. Olopatadine eye drop
  D. Trifluridine eye drop
  C. Olopatadine eye drop

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  Olopatadine hydrochloride is an antihistamine (as well as anticholinergic and mast cell stabilizer), sold as a prescription eye drop (0.2% solution, Pataday (or Patanol S in some countries), manufactured by Alcon). It is used to treat itching associated with allergic conjunctivitis (eye allergies). Olopatadine hydrochloride 0.1% is sold as Patanol (or Opatanol in some countries). A decongestant nasal spray formulation is sold as Patanase, which was approved by the FDA on April 15, 2008. It is also available as an oral tablet in Japan under the tradename Allelock, manufactured by Kyowa Hakko Kogyo. It should not be used to treat irritation caused by contact lenses. The usual dose for Patanol is 1 drop in each affected eye 2 times per day, with 6 to 8 hours between doses. There is potential for Olopatadine as a treatment modality for steroid rebound (red skin syndrome.)

• Question 102:

  A 31-year-old woman presents to the ED with a sudden onset of left-sided chest pain and difficulty breathing. She states her only medication is birth control pills. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day for 10 years. She is tachypneic (24 BrPM) and her heart rate is 120 beats per minute. Physical examination reveals diminished breath sounds on the left and the trachea deviated to the right.

  What is the most likely diagnosis?

  A. Tension pneumothorax
  B. Pulmonary embolus
  C. Pericardial tamponade
  A. Tension pneumothorax

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  Tension pneumothorax presents with decreased breath sound on one side and tracheal deviation PE does not give tracheal deviation, although it does have chest pain and tachycardia. Muffled heart sounds are seen typically in pericardial tamponade. This patient's risk for pneumothorax is that she is a smoker. It is likely she has a pleural bleb that burst due to her smoking history.

• Question 103:

  What is the best initial investigation in a postmenopausal woman with a breast lump?

  A. Mammography
  B. Ultrasound
  C. MRI
  D. fine needle aspiration biopsy
  B. Ultrasound

• Question 104:

  A patient with Type-1diabetes has a fundus showing micro-aneurysm and hard exudate. What is the single diagnosis?

  A. Hypertensive retinopathy
  B. Diabetic background
  C. MS
  D. Macular degeneration
  E. Proliferative DM retinopathy
  B. Diabetic background

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  Diabetic background retinopathy. Microanurysm, hard exudates are seen in background diabetic ret

• Question 105:

  A 54-year-old man, newly diagnosed with type- 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to the clinic for his first assessment. He is found to have changes in his eyes on fundoscopy.

  Which of the following is most likely to need immediate referral to the ophthalmologist?

  A. few dot and blot haemorrhages
  B. some hard exudates > 1 disc diameter from the fovea
  C. New vessels on the disc
  C. New vessels on the disc

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  New vessels on the disc Background diabetic retinopathy consists of dot and blot haemorrhages and hard exudates. Patients do not need to be referred to the ophthalmologist unless these are within 1 disc diameter of the fovea. This can be monitored annually at the routine clinic. Cataracts appear about 10 years earlier in type-2 diabetes than in non-diabetic patients. If the vision is significantly affected the patients warrant routine and not urgent referral to the ophthalmologist. Soft exudates suggest retinal ischaemia, which would require routine referral to the ophthalmologist. New vessels anywhere in the fundus are a feature of proliferative retinopathy and, as new vessels have a risk of haemorrhage and can threaten sight, they should be referred urgently to the ophthalmologist.

• Question 106:

  Which vitamin has a protective effect against colon cancer?

  A. Vitamin C
  B. Vitamin D
  C. Folic acid
  D. Vitamin K
  B. Vitamin D

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  Calcium and vitamin D Calcium may protect against bowel cancer, according to the World Cancer Research Fund. A 2004meta analysis showed that people with the highest levels of calcium intake (from food and supplements) reduced their risk of bowel cancer by 22% compared to people with the lowest calcium intake. However, 2 meta analyses in 2010 found that calcium supplements had no effect on bowel cancer risk in the general population. But they did find a link between calcium intake and a reduced risk of polyps coming back in the bowel after previous treatment. Polyps are growths in the bowel that may develop into cancer over a long period of time, if left untreated. To reduce bowel cancer risk, it may be better to take vitamin D and calcium together. We need vitamin D to be able to absorb calcium. A large randomized controlled trial in 2006 showed that only the people with high intakes of both calcium and vitamin D had a reduced risk of bowel cancer. Other studies have shown that people with the highest intakes of vitamin D have a lower risk of bowel cancer and bowel polyps. Dairy There is some evidence that drinking milk reduces the risk of bowel cancer. A review in 2011 showed that the benefit of dairy in reducing bowel cancer risk was only seen at levels over 100 grams (g) a day. Having 500 to 800g milk a day reduced bowel cancer risk by 20 to 30%. One pint, or 0.5 liters, of semi skimmed milk weighs about 550g. The effect of milk on lowering bowel cancer risk may be partly due to the calcium. But milk contains many other substances which may also play a role. There is limited evidence that eating cheese may increase the risk of bowel cancer. It is not clear how cheese may increase the risk, but it may have something to do with the saturated fatty acids.

• Question 107:

  A 76-year-old woman is brought in for respiratory distress and altered mental status. Her medical history records right-sided hemiplegia from a stroke several years ago. She has blood pressure 86/52; heart rate 123 BPM, breathing rate 33 Br PM, temperature 102.3A. Neurogenic shock
  B. Cardiogenic shock
  C. Septic shock
  D. Hypovolemic shock

  C. Septic shock

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  This patient is presenting with 3 SIRS criteria: hypotension, altered mental status, and a source of infection (pneumonia). The physical exam is also consistent with septic shock: Massive vasodilation has yielded warm extremities and faint pulses. Both hypovolemic shock and cardiogenic shock would have pale and cool extremities. There is no mention of bleeding, ruling out hemorrhagic shock.

• Question 108:

  Most appropriate initial therapy for Postpartum Endometritis is:

  A. Clindamycinandmetronidazole
  B. Vancomycinandgentamycin
  C. Ceftriaxoneandazithromycin
  D. Clindamycinandgentamycin
  D. Clindamycinandgentamycin

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  The prevention of endometritis is important. Infection prevention practices, including avoiding unnecessary caesarean section, appropriate management of prolonged labour, fewer vaginal examinations during labour, use of good sterile techniques and meticulous operative procedures during delivery, and providing appropriate prophylactic antibiotics during caesarean section should be routinely practiced. FIRST CONTACT (PRIMARY CARE LEVEL) The diagnosis of endometritis should be considered when a postpartum woman has febrile morbidity (oral temperature 38.0

• Question 109:

  A person with suspicion of neisseria gonorrhoeae infection. Which test is necessary?

  A. blood culture
  B. urine culture
  C. throat swab culture on Thayer-Martin agar
  C. throat swab culture on Thayer-Martin agar

• Question 110:

  A 45-year-old IV drug abuser is brought into the Emergency room with complaint of fever, shivering, malaise, dyspnea and productive cough. Exam: temp=39C, pulse=110bpm, BP=100/70mmHg. Inv: CXR= bilateral cavitating bronchopneumonia.

  What is the single most likely causative organism?

  A. Staphylococcus
  B. PCP
  C. Pseudomonas
  D. Chlamydia
  A. Staphylococcus