CompTIA JK0-022 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA JK0-022 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1051:

  Which of the following concepts are included on the three sides of the "security triangle"? (Select THREE).

  A. Confidentiality
  B. Availability
  C. Integrity
  D. Authorization
  E. Authentication
  F. Continuity
  A. Confidentiality
  B. Availability
  C. Integrity

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  Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are the three most important concepts in security. Thus they form the security triangle. Incorrect Answers: D: Authorization policies are used to uphold confidentiality. E: Authentication is the process of verifying that the sender is who they say they are. Authentication is used to uphold confidentiality. F: Continuity is used to ensure availability. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 259, 261 2.1.10 Risks associated with Cloud Computing and Virtualization

• Question 1052:

  Which of the following controls can be implemented together to prevent data loss in the event of theft of a mobile device storing sensitive information? (Select TWO).

  A. Full device encryption
  B. Screen locks
  C. GPS
  D. Asset tracking
  E. Inventory control
  A. Full device encryption
  B. Screen locks

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  A: Device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen. B: Screen locks are a security feature that requires the user to enter a PIN or a password after a short period of inactivity before they can access the system again. This feature ensures that if your device is left unattended or is lost or stolen, it will be difficult for anyone else to access your data or applications. Incorrect Answers: C: Global Positioning System (GPS) tracking can be used to identify its location of a stolen device and can allow authorities to locate the device. However, for GPS tracking to work, the device must have an Internet connection or a wireless phone service over which to send its location information. D: Asset tracking is the process of maintaining oversight over inventory, and ensuring that a device is still in the possession of the assigned authorized user. E: Inventory control is an aspect of asset tracking and the overseeing of inventory. It does not prevent data loss. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 418-419 Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 236, 237, 238

• Question 1053:

  Which of the following software allows a network administrator to inspect the protocol header in order to troubleshoot network issues?

  A. URL filter
  B. Spam filter
  C. Packet sniffer
  D. Switch
  C. Packet sniffer

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  Every data packet transmitted across a network has a protocol header. To view a protocol header, you need to capture and view the contents of the packet with a packet sniffer. A sniffer (packet sniffer) is a tool that intercepts data flowing in a network. If computers are connected to a local area network that is not filtered or switched, the traffic can be broadcast to all computers contained in the same segment. This doesn't generally occur, since computers are generally told to ignore all the comings and goings of traffic from other computers. However, in the case of a sniffer, all traffic is shared when the sniffer software commands the Network Interface Card (NIC) to stop ignoring the traffic. The NIC is put into promiscuous mode, and it reads communications between computers within a particular segment. This allows the sniffer to seize everything that is flowing in the network, which can lead to the unauthorized access of sensitive data. A packet sniffer can take the form of either a hardware or software solution. A sniffer is also known as a packet analyzer. Incorrect Answers: A: A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website. It is not used to view protocol headers. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. B: A spam filter is used for email. All inbound (and sometimes outbound) email is passed through the spam filter to detect spam emails. The spam emails are then discarded or tagged as potential spam according to the spam filter configuration. A spam filter is not used to view protocol headers. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. D: A switch is a network device. Most computers on the network will be plugged into a switch. Switches maintain a MAC Table that maps individual MAC addresses on the network to the physical ports on the switch. This allows the switch to direct data out of the physical port where the recipient is located, as opposed to indiscriminately broadcasting the data out of all ports as a hub does. The advantage of this method is that data is bridged exclusively to the network segment containing the computer that the data is specifically destined for. A switch is not used to view protocol headers. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. References: http://www.techopedia.com/definition/4113/sniffer

• Question 1054:

  Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?

  A. HTTPS
  B. HMAC
  C. GPG
  D. SSH
  D. SSH

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  SSH transmits both authentication traffic and data in a secured encrypted form, whereas Telnet transmits both authentication credentials and data in clear text. Incorrect Answers: A: HTTPS provides the secure means for web-based transactions by utilizing various other protocols such as SSL and TLS. B: Guarantees the integrity of a message during transmission, but it doesn't provide for non- repudiation. C: GNU Privacy Guard (GnuPG or GPG) is a GPL Licensed alternative to the PGP suite of cryptographic software. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is a freeware email encryption system. References: Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 42, 46. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/GNU_Privacy_Guard Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 272.

• Question 1055:

  A database administrator would like to start encrypting database exports stored on the SAN, but the storage administrator warns that this may drastically increase the amount of disk space used by the exports. Which of the following explains the reason for the increase in disk space usage?

  A. Deduplication is not compatible with encryption
  B. The exports are being stored on smaller SAS drives
  C. Encrypted files are much larger than unencrypted files
  D. The SAN already uses encryption at rest
  C. Encrypted files are much larger than unencrypted files

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  Encryption adds overhead to the data which results in and increase in file size. This overhead is attached to each file and could include the encryption/decryption key, data recovery files and data decryption field in file header. As a result, requires increased storage space. Incorrect Answers: A: Data deduplication is a specialized data compression technique for identifying and eliminating duplicate copies of data. Modern cryptography often includes compression deduplication though some do not. B: A storage area network (SAN) is a secondary network that offers storage isolation by consolidating storage devices such as hard drives, drive arrays, optical jukeboxes, and tape libraries. The size of the storage device is irrelevant as it is part of the SAN. D: If the data is already encrypted it would not lead to an increase in storage space. References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_deduplication https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/2006.05.howitworks.aspx Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 251

• Question 1056:

  Which of the following would be used as a secure substitute for Telnet?

  A. SSH
  B. SFTP
  C. SSL
  D. HTTPS
  A. SSH

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  Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol originally designed for Unix systems. It uses encryption to establish a secure connection between two systems. SSH also provides alternative, security-equivalent programs for such Unix standards as Telnet, FTP, and many other communications-oriented applications. SSH is available for use on Windows systems as well. This makes it the preferred method of security for Telnet and other cleartext oriented programs in the Unix environment. Incorrect Answers: B: SFTP is for File transfers, not for telnet. The SSH File Transfer Protocol (also Secure File Transfer Protocol, or SFTP) is a network protocol that provides file access, file transfer, and file management functionalities over any reliable data stream. C: SSL is used to provide a secure channel, not to establish a telnet connection. The Secure Socket Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) is the most widely deployed security protocol used today. It is essentially a protocol that provides a secure channel between two machines operating over the Internet or an internal network. D: HTTPS is not used for telnet connections. HTTPS is a communications protocol for secure communication over a computer network, with especially wide deployment on the Internet. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 76, 91, 268-269, 271, 274

• Question 1057:

  To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?

  A. Management
  B. Administrative
  C. Technical
  D. Operational
  C. Technical

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  controls such as preventing unauthorized access to PC's and applying screensavers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity is a technical control type, the same as Identification and Authentication, Access Control, Audit and Accountability as well as System and Communication Protection. Incorrect Answers: A: Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security Assessment. B: Administrative tools are used when applying technical control types. D: Operational control types include Personnel Security, Physical and Environmental Protection, Contingency planning, Configuration Management, Maintenance, System and Information Integrity, Media Protection, Incident Response and Awareness and Training. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 27

• Question 1058:

  Human Resources (HR) would like executives to undergo only two specific security training programs a year. Which of the following provides the BEST level of security training for the executives? (Select TWO).

  A. Acceptable use of social media
  B. Data handling and disposal
  C. Zero day exploits and viruses
  D. Phishing threats and attacks
  E. Clean desk and BYOD
  F. Information security awareness
  D. Phishing threats and attacks
  F. Information security awareness

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  Managers/ i.e. executives in the company are concerned with more global issues in the organization, including enforcing security policies and procedures. Managers should receive additional training or exposure that explains the issues, threats, and methods of dealing with threats. Management will also be concerned about productivity impacts and enforcement and how the various departments are affected by security policies. Phishing is a form of social engineering in which you ask someone for a piece of information that you are missing by making it look as if it is a legitimate request. An email might look as if it is from a bank and contain some basic information, such as the user's name. Executives an easily fall prey to phishing if they are not trained to lookout for these attacks. Incorrect Answers: A: Acceptable use policies regarding how social media can be used within the organization is geared mainly are the employees to make them aware that attackers can solicit information/data from the company over instant messaging (IM) which is social media as easily as they can over email, and this can occur in Facebook, MySpace, or anywhere else that IM is possible B: Data handling and disposal refers to the access of data to those users that need to access it and not more. C: A Zero-day exploit occurs when a vulnerability/hole is found in a web-browser or other software by attackers and exploited immediately. The executives of a company are unlikely to be handling this type of attack. E: A Clean Desk and BYOD policy training it best aimed at employees and to encourage employees to maintain clean desks and to leave out only those papers that are relevant to the project they are working on at that moment. All sensitive information should be put away when the employee is away from their desk. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 338, 400

• Question 1059:

  A system administrator wants to confidentially send a user name and password list to an individual outside the company without the information being detected by security controls. Which of the following would BEST meet this security goal?

  A. Digital signatures
  B. Hashing
  C. Full-disk encryption
  D. Steganography
  D. Steganography

• Question 1060:

  A company is installing a new security measure that would allow one person at a time to be authenticated to an area without human interaction. Which of the following does this describe?

  A. Fencing
  B. Mantrap
  C. A guard
  D. Video surveillance
  B. Mantrap

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  Mantraps make use of electronic locks and are designed to allow you to limit the amount of individual allowed access to an area at any one time. Incorrect Answers: A: Fencing is a physical perimeter security measure that is designed to prevent unauthorized access to your premises. C: A guard will act as a deterrent to keep any intruders out, but involves human interaction. D: Video surveillance is best accomplished when the camera is recording and being monitored by a person which in turn means human interaction. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 372