EMC E10-001 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

EMC E10-001 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 331:

  What describes the state of the remote device during the data migration process?

  A. Host access to the remote device is allowed
  B. Data is mirrored before written to the remote device
  C. Host access to the remote device is not allowed
  D. Data is momentarily paused before written to the remote device
  C. Host access to the remote device is not allowed

• Question 332:

  What is a characteristic of asynchronous remote replication?

  A. Replica will be behind the source by at least the size of the buffer
  B. A near-zero RPO disaster recovery solution
  C. Write must be committed at the target before being acknowledged as complete
  D. Deployed only for distances within 200 km between two sites
  A. Replica will be behind the source by at least the size of the buffer

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  Asynchronous remote replication

  

  In asynchronous remote replication, a write is committed to the source and immediately acknowledged to the host. In this mode, data is buffered at the source and transmitted to the remote site later. Data at the remote site will be behind the source by at least the size of the buffer. Hence, asynchronous remote replication provides a finite (nonzero) RPO disaster recovery solution. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12: Remote Replication

• Question 333:

  A system has three components and all three components need to be operational 24 hours; Monday to Friday. During a particular week, failure on component 1 occurred as follows:

  

  Monday = 6 PM to 9 PM

  

  Tuesday = 8 AM to 10 AM

  

  Wednesday = No failure

  

  Thursday = 8 PM to 9 PM

  

  Friday = No failure

  

  Saturday = 5 AM to 8 AM

  

  Sunday = 6 PM to 9 PM

  What is the mean time between failures of component 1?

  A. 30 Hours
  B. 37 Hours
  C. 40 Hours
  D. 44 Hours
  B. 37 Hours

• Question 334:

  What is an example of an SaaS offering?

  A. Microsoft Azure
  B. Google App Engine
  C. EMC Mozy
  D. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
  C. EMC Mozy

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  Software-as-a-Service

  

  The capability provided to the consumer is to use the provider's applications running on a cloud infrastructure. The applications are accessible from various client devices through either a thin client interface, such as a web browser (example, web-based e-mail), or a program interface. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, storage, or even individual application capabilities, with the possible exception of limited user- specific application configuration settings.

  In a SaaS model, applications, such as Customer Relationship Management (CRM), e-mail, and Instant Messaging (IM), are offered as a service by the cloud service providers. The cloud service providers exclusively manage the required computing infrastructure and software to support these services. The consumers may be allowed to change a few application configuration settings to customize the applications.

  EMC Mozy is an example of Software-as-a-Service. Consumers can leverage the Mozy console to perform automatic, secured, online backup and recovery of their data with ease.

  Salesforce.com is a provider of SaaS-based CRM applications, such as Sales Cloud and Service Cloud.

  EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13: Cloud Computing

• Question 335:

  Which EMC product enables configuration of Vblock resources and the activation of cloud services?

  A. Unisphere Manager
  B. Vblock Manager
  C. ControlCenter
  D. Unified Infrastructure Manager
  D. Unified Infrastructure Manager

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  VBlock

  

  Vblock is completely integrated cloud infrastructure offering that includes compute, storage, network, and virtualization products. These products are provided by EMC, VMware, and Cisco, who have formed a coalition to deliver Vblocks.

  Vblocks enables organizations to build virtualized data centers and cloud infrastructures.

  Vblocks are pre-architected, preconfigured, pretested and have defined performance and availability attributes. Rather than customers buying and assembling individual cloud infrastructure components, Vblock provides a validated cloud

  infrastructure solution and is factory-ready for deployment and production. This saves significant cost and deployment time. EMC Unified Infrastructure Manager (UIM) is the unified management solution for Vblocks. UIM provides a single point of management for Vblocks and manages multiple Vblocks. With UIM, cloud infrastructure services can be provisioned automatically and based on provisioning best practices. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13: Cloud Computing

• Question 336:

  A stripe depth of 32 KB has been assigned to a five-disk RAID 5 set. What is the stripe size?

  A. 32KB
  B. 128KB
  C. 160 KB
  D. 192 KB
  B. 128KB

• Question 337:

  Why should a replica be consistent with its source?

  A. Ensure the usability of the replica
  B. Reduce the need to create multiple replicas
  C. Ensure the security of the replica
  D. Reduce the size of the replica
  A. Ensure the usability of the replica

• Question 338:

  What is one way that iSCSI initiators can discover their targets?

  A. Using a Storage Name Service
  B. Using a common Internet file system
  C. Using an Internet Storage Name Service
  D. Using a Domain Name Service
  C. Using an Internet Storage Name Service

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  iSCSI Discovery

  An initiator must discover the location of its targets on the network and the names of the targets available to it before it can establish a session. This discovery can take place in two ways:

  SendTargets discovery or internet Storage Name Service (iSNS). In SendTargets discovery, the initiator is manually configured with the target's network portal to establish a discovery session. The initiator issues the SendTargets command,

  and the target network portal responds with the required parameters of the targets available to the host.

  iSNS enables automatic discovery of iSCSI devices on an IP network. The initiators and targets can be configured to automatically register themselves with the iSNS server. Whenever an initiator wants to know the targets that it can access, it

  can query the iSNS server for a list of available targets. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6: IP SAN and FCoE

• Question 339:

  Refer to the exhibit.

  

  Which environment is represented in the exhibit?

  A. Write-through cache
  B. Read miss
  C. Read hit
  D. Write-back cache
  A. Write-through cache

• Question 340:

  What is an accurate statement if the recovery time objective (RTO) of an application is 4 hours?

  A. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
  B. Production must be resumed within 4 hours after a failure
  C. Mean time to repair the application is at least 4 hours
  D. Mean time between application failure is 4 hours
  B. Production must be resumed within 4 hours after a failure

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  BC Terminologies

  

  Recovery-Point Objective (RPO): This is the point-in-time to which systems and data must be recovered after an outage. It defines the amount of data loss that a business can endure. Based on the RPO, organizations plan for the frequency with which a backup or replica must be made. An organization can plan for an appropriate BC technology solution on the basis of the RPO it sets.

  Recovery-Time Objective (RTO): The time within which systems and applications must be recovered after an outage. It defines the amount of downtime that a business can endure and survive EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module

  9: Introduction to Business Continuity