EMC E10-001 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

EMC E10-001 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 91:

  The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster?

  A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours
  B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours
  C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours
  D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
  D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost

• Question 92:

  Which FCoE feature enables consistent configuration parameters across the network?

  A. Enhanced transmission selection
  B. Congestion notification protocol
  C. Priority-based flow control
  D. Data center bridging exchange protocol
  D. Data center bridging exchange protocol

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  Data Center Brdiging Exchange Protocol (DCBX) DCBX protocol is a discovery and capability exchange protocol, which helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network. DCBX is used to negotiate capabilities between the switches and the adapters, and it allows the switch to distribute the configuration values to all the attached adapters. This helps to ensure consistent configuration across the entire network. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6: IP SAN and FCoE

• Question 93:

  Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is a power failure?

  A. Cache vaulting
  B. Cache mirroring
  C. Low watermarking
  D. Prefetching
  A. Cache vaulting

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  Cache Data Protection Cache is volatile memory, so a power failure or any kind of cache failure will cause loss of the data that is not yet committed to the disk. This risk of losing uncommitted data held in cache can be mitigated using cache mirroring and cache vaulting:

  Cache mirroring: Each write to cache is held in two different memory locations on two independent memory cards. If a cache failure occurs, the write data will still be safe in the mirrored location and can be committed to the disk. Reads are staged from the disk to the cache; therefore, if a cache failure occurs, the data can still be accessed from the disk. Because only writes are mirrored, this method results in better utilization of the available cache. In cache mirroring approaches, the problem of maintaining cache coherency is introduced. Cache coherency means that data in two different cache locations must be identical at all times. It is the responsibility of the array operating environment to ensure coherency. Cache vaulting: The risk of data loss due to power failure can be addressed in various ways: powering the memory with a battery until the AC power is restored or using battery power to write the cache content to the disk. If an extended power failure occurs, using batteries is not a viable option. This is because in intelligent storage systems, large amounts of data might need to be committed to numerous disks, and batteries might not provide power for sufficient time to write each piece of data to its intended disk. Therefore, storage vendors use a set of physical disks to dump the contents of cache during power failure. This is called cache vaulting and the disks are called vault drives. When power is restored, data from these disks is written back to write cache and then written to the intended disks. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4: Intelligent Storage System

• Question 94:

  Which benefit does block-level storage virtualization provide?

  A. Non-disruptive data migration between storage arrays
  B. Performance enhancement by limiting the RSCN traffic
  C. Logical segmentation of block storage devices for improved security
  D. Increased scalability through separation of FC addresses across VSANs
  A. Non-disruptive data migration between storage arrays

• Question 95:

  What is an advantage of implementing deduplication for performing backups?

  A. Enables a longer retention period of backup data
  B. Eliminates backup window requirements
  C. Reduces the storage space requirement for production data
  D. Eliminates the need for archiving data
  A. Enables a longer retention period of backup data

• Question 96:

  Which statement describes a denial of service attack?

  A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
  B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
  C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone's identity
  D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
  A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services

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  Threats

  Threats are the potential attacks that can be carried out on an IT infrastructure. These attacks can be classified as active or passive. Passive attacks are attempts to gain unauthorized access into the system. They pose threats to

  confidentiality of information. Active attacks include data modification, denial of service (DoS), and repudiation attacks. They pose threats to data integrity, availability, and accountability.

  In a data modification attack, the unauthorized user attempts to modify information for malicious purposes. A modification attack can target the data at rest or the data in transit.

  These attacks pose a threat to data integrity.

  Denial of service (DoS) attacks prevent legitimate users from accessing resources and services. These attacks generally do not involve access to or modification of information.

  Instead, they pose a threat to data availability. The intentional flooding of a network or website to prevent legitimate access to authorized users is one example of a DoS attack.

  Repudiation is an attack against the accountability of information. It attempts to provide false information by either impersonating someone's identity or denying that an event or a transaction has taken place. For example, a repudiation attack

  may involve performing an action and eliminating any evidence that could prove the identity of the user (attacker) who performed that action. Repudiation attacks include circumventing the logging of security events or tampering with the

  security log to conceal the identity of the attacker.

  EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14: Securing the Storage Infrastructure

• Question 97:

  What is the correct sequence of steps in a read-miss operation with cache?

  Select and Place

  

  

• Question 98:

  What is required for a successful backup of all files during a hot backup?

  A. Remote vault
  B. Multistreaming
  C. Open file agent
  D. Virus scan software
  C. Open file agent

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  Backup Methods Hot backup and cold backup are the two methods deployed for backup. They are based on the state of the application when the backup is performed. In a hot backup, the application is up-and- running, with users accessing their data during the backup process. This method of backup is also referred to as online backup. A cold backup requires the application to be shutdown during the backup process. Hence, this method is also referred to as offline backup.

  The hot backup of online production data is challenging because data is actively being used and changed. If a file is open, it is normally not backed up during the backup process. In such situations, an open file agent is required to back up the open file. These agents interact directly with the operating system or application and enable the creation of consistent copies of open files. The disadvantage associated with a hot backup is that the agents usually affect the overall application performance. Consistent backups of databases can also be done by using a cold backup. This requires the database to remain inactive during the backup. Of course, the disadvantage of a cold backup is that the database is inaccessible to users during the backup process. All the files must be backed up in the same state for consistent backup of a database that comprises many files EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 9: Introduction to Business Continuity

• Question 99:

  A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less critical applications, such as backup and archive.

  Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?

  A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critical applications on a public cloud.
  B. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud and the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
  C. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud and the less critical applications on a public cloud.
  D. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
  A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critical applications on a public cloud.

• Question 100:

  What are the three primary goals of information security?

  A. Authenticity, repudiation, and accountability
  B. Availability, confidentiality, and integrity
  C. Authenticity, confidentiality, and accountability
  D. Availability, authenticity, and confidentiality
  B. Availability, confidentiality, and integrity

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  Information Security Framework

  The basic information security framework is built to achieve four security goals, confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) along with accountability. This framework incorporates all security standards, procedures and controls, required to

  mitigate threats in the storage infrastructure environment.

  Confidentiality: Provides the required secrecy of information and ensures that only authorized users have access to data. This requires authentication of users who need to access information. Data in transit (data transmitted over cables) and

  data at rest (data residing on a primary storage, backup media, or in the archives) can be encrypted to maintain its confidentiality. In addition to restricting unauthorized users from accessing information, confidentiality also requires to

  implement traffic flow protection measures as part of the security protocol. These protection measures generally include hiding source and destination addresses, frequency of data being sent, and amount of data sent.

  Integrity: Ensures that the information is unaltered. Ensuring integrity requires detection and protection against unauthorized alteration or deletion of information. Ensuring integrity stipulate measures such as error detection and correction for

  both data and systems.

  Availability: This ensures that authorized users have reliable and timely access to systems, data and applications residing on these systems. Availability requires protection against unauthorized deletion of data and denial of service.

  Availability also implies that sufficient resources are available to provide a service.

  Accountability: Refers to accounting for all the events and operations that take place in the data center infrastructure. The accountability service maintains a log of events that can be audited or traced later for the purpose of security.

  EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14: Securing the Storage Infrastructure