ISC CSSLP Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

ISC CSSLP Online Questions & Answers

• Question 211:

  Which of the following allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer?

  A. Emulator
  B. Hypervisor
  C. Grid computing
  D. CP/CMS
  B. Hypervisor

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  A hypervisor is a virtualization technique that allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating systems and checks their execution process. It provides isolation to the host's resources. The hypervisor is installed on server hardware. Answer: A is incorrect. Emulator duplicates the functions of one system using a different system, so that the second system behaves like the first system. Answer: D is incorrect. CP/CMS is a time-sharing operating system of the late 60s and early 70s, and it is known for its excellent performance and advanced features. Answer: C is incorrect. Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

• Question 212:

  At which of the following levels of robustness in DRM must the security functions be immune to widely available tools and specialized tools and resistant to professional tools?

  A. Level 2
  B. Level 4
  C. Level 1
  D. Level 3
  C. Level 1

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  At Level 1 of robustness in DRM, the security functions must be immune to widely available tools and specialized tools and resistant to professional tools.

• Question 213:

  In which of the following SDLC phases is the system's security features configured and enabled, the system is tested and installed or fielded, and the system is authorized for processing?

  A. Development/Acquisition Phase
  B. Operation/Maintenance Phase
  C. Implementation Phase
  D. Initiation Phase
  C. Implementation Phase

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  It is the implementation phase, in which the system's security features are configured and enabled, the system is tested and installed or fielded, and the system is authorized for processing. A design review and systems test should be performed prior to placing the system into operation to ensure that it meets security specifications. Answer: B is incorrect. In Operation/Maintenance Phase, the system performs its work. The system is almost always being continuously modified by the addition of hardware and software and by numerous other events. Answer: D is incorrect. In the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer: A is incorrect. In Development/Acquisition Phase, the system is designed, purchased, programmed, developed, or otherwise constructed.

• Question 214:

  Fred is the project manager of the CPS project. He is working with his project team to prioritize the identified risks within the CPS project. He and the team are prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining the risks probability of occurrence and impact. What process is Fred completing?

  A. Risk identification
  B. Risk Breakdown Structure creation
  C. Perform qualitative analysis
  D. Perform quantitative analysis
  C. Perform qualitative analysis

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  Qualitative ranks the probability and impact and then helps the project manager and team to determine which risks need further analysis. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis and action. It combines risks and their probability of occurrences and ranks them accordingly. It enables organizations to improve the project's performance by focusing on high-priority risks. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses. It also lays the foundation for Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk identification precedes this activity. Answer: B is incorrect. This process does not describe the decomposition and organization of risks that you will complete in a risk breakdown structure. Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative analysis is the final step of risk analysis. Note the question tells you that Fred and the team will identify risks for additional analysis.

• Question 215:

  Which of the following are the levels of public or commercial data classification system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

  A. Sensitive
  B. Private
  C. Unclassified
  D. Confidential
  E. Secret
  F. Public
  A. Sensitive
  B. Private
  D. Confidential
  F. Public

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  The public or commercial data classification is also built upon a four-level model, which are as follows: Public Sensitive Private Confidential Each level (top to bottom) represents an increasing level of sensitivity. The public level is similar to unclassified level military classification system. This level of data should not cause any damage if disclosed. Sensitive is a higher level of classification than public level data. This level of data requires a greater level of protection to maintain confidentiality. The Private level of data is intended for company use only. Disclosure of this level of data can damage the company. The Confidential level of data is considered very sensitive and is intended for internal use only. Disclosure of this level of data can cause serious damage to the company. Answer: C and E are incorrect. Unclassified and secret are the levels of military data classification.

• Question 216:

  Which of the following secure coding principles and practices defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it?

  A. Make code forward and backward traceable
  B. Review code during and after coding
  C. Use a consistent coding style
  D. Keep code simple and small
  C. Use a consistent coding style

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  Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and simple code base. Answer: A is incorrect. Make code forward and backward traceable defines that traceability is necessary in order to validate requirements, prevent defects, and find and solve inconsistencies among all objects generated in the SDLC phases. Answer: B is incorrect. Review code during and after coding defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules.

• Question 217:

  FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels shows that the procedures and controls have been implemented?

  A. Level 2
  B. Level 3
  C. Level 5
  D. Level 1
  E. Level 4
  B. Level 3

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  The following are the five levels of FITSAF based on SEI's Capability Maturity Model (CMM): Level 1: The first level reflects that an asset has documented a security policy. Level 2: The second level shows that the asset has documented procedures and controls to implement the policy. Level 3: The third level indicates that these procedures and controls have been implemented. Level 4: The fourth level shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed. Level 5: The fifth level is the final level and shows that the asset has procedures and controls fully integrated into a comprehensive program.

• Question 218:

  Which of the following terms refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access?

  A. Integrity
  B. Recovery
  C. Auditing
  D. Confidentiality
  D. Confidentiality

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  Confidentiality is a term that refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Symmetric encryption is a relatively fast encryption method. Hence, this method of encryption is best suited for encrypting large amounts of data such as files on a computer. Answer: A is incorrect. Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: C is incorrect. Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown etc. This enhances the security of the network. Before enabling auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the Audit Policy in User Manager for Domains.

• Question 219:

  John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre- attack phase successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?

  A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
  B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
  C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
  D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
  A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.

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  John will perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network. Fingerprinting is the easiest way to detect the Operating System (OS) of a remote system. OS detection is important because, after knowing the target system's OS, it becomes easier to hack into the system. The comparison of data packets that are sent by the target system is done by fingerprinting. The analysis of data packets gives the attacker a hint as to which operating system is being used by the remote system. There are two types of fingerprinting techniques as follows: 1.Active fingerprinting 2.Passive fingerprinting In active fingerprinting ICMP messages are sent to the target system and the response message of the target system shows which OS is being used by the remote system. In passive fingerprinting the number of hops reveals the OS of the remote system. Answer: D and B are incorrect. John should perform OS fingerprinting first, after which it will be easy to identify which services are running on the network since there are many services that run only on a specific operating system. After performing OS fingerprinting, John should perform networking mapping. Answer: C is incorrect. This is a pre-attack phase, and only after gathering all relevant knowledge of a network should John install a backdoor.

• Question 220:

  Which of the following DITSCAP CandA phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?

  A. Phase 4
  B. Phase 3
  C. Phase 1
  D. Phase 2
  D. Phase 2

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  The Phase 2 of DITSCAP CandA is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. Answer: C, B, and A are incorrect. These phases do not take place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system.