CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 471:

  An organization's Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is organizing a tabletop drill. The CISO has included several other executives in the meeting invitation for the drill, as required.

  Which of the following is the best reason for including the Chief Communications Officer?

  A. Deciding when and how to issue press releases regarding incidents can minimize damage to the organization's brand reputation.
  B. All of the organization's high-level executives should know about the IT department's incident response plan.
  C. All parties must be able to communicate clearly. concisely, and consistently during incident response.
  D. The CISO would like to increase the security department's visibility to senior executives.
  A. Deciding when and how to issue press releases regarding incidents can minimize damage to the organization's brand reputation.

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  Explanation

  Most Voted: C

• Question 472:

  Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?

  A. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communication plan
  B. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification
  C. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies
  D. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems
  B. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification

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  Explanation

  A successful information security program consists of several key elements that align with the organization's goals and objectives, and address the risks and threats to its information assets. Security policy implementation: This is the process of developing, documenting, and enforcing the rules and standards that govern the security of the organization's information assets. Security policies define the scope, objectives, roles, and responsibilities of the security program, as well as the acceptable use, access control, incident response, and compliance requirements for the information assets. Assignment of roles and responsibilities: This is the process of identifying and assigning the specific tasks and duties related to the security program to the appropriate individuals or groups within the organization. Roles and responsibilities define who is accountable, responsible, consulted, and informed for each security activity, such as risk assessment, vulnerability management, threat detection, incident response, auditing, and reporting. Information asset classification: This is the process of categorizing the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality to the organization. Information asset classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls for each asset, as well as the impact and likelihood of a security breach or loss. Information asset classification also facilitates the prioritization of security resources and efforts based on the risk level of each asset.

• Question 473:

  A cybersecurity team has witnessed numerous vulnerability events recently that have affected operating systems. The team decides to implement host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication.

  Which of the following does this most likely describe?

  A. System hardening
  B. Hybrid network architecture
  C. Continuous authorization
  D. Secure access service edge
  A. System hardening

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  Explanation

  System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface, applying patches and updates, configuring security settings, and implementing security controls. System hardening can help prevent or mitigate vulnerability events that may affect operating systems. Host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication are examples of security controls that can be applied to harden a system. The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization ?is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.

• Question 474:

  A security analyst is developing a script to filter firewall vulnerabilities. The script will impact the integrity of data hosted on devices connected to networks.

  Which of the following is a CVSS v4.0 that the analyst can use to test a true positive for the script?

  A. AV:L/AC:H/AT:N/PR:L/VI:H/VC:H/VA:H/SC:N/SI:N/SA:N
  B. AV:N/AC:L/AT:N/PR:N/VI:N/VC:N/VA:N/SC:N/SI:H/SA:L
  C. AV:P/AC:L/AT:N/PR:H/VI:L/VC:L/VA:L/SC:N/SI:N/SA:N
  D. AV:A/AC:L/AT:N/PR:H/VI:N/VC:L/VA:L/SC:N/SI:N/SA:H
  B. AV:N/AC:L/AT:N/PR:N/VI:N/VC:N/VA:N/SC:N/SI:H/SA:L

• Question 475:

  An attacker has just gained access to the syslog server on a LAN. Reviewing the syslog entries has allowed the attacker to prioritize possible next targets.

  Which of the following is this an example of?

  A. Passive network foot printing
  B. OS fingerprinting
  C. Service port identification
  D. Application versioning
  A. Passive network foot printing

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  Explanation

  Passive network foot printing is the best description of the example, as it reflects the technique of collecting information about a network or system by monitoring or sniffing network traffic without sending any packets or interacting with the target. Foot printing is a term that refers to the process of gathering information about a target network or system, such as its IP addresses, open ports, operating systems, services, or vulnerabilities. Foot printing can be done for legitimate purposes, such as penetration testing or auditing, or for malicious purposes, such as reconnaissance or intelligence gathering. Foot printing can be classified into two types: active and passive. Active foot printing involves sending packets or requests to the target and analyzing the responses, such as using tools like ping, traceroute, or Nmap. Active foot printing can provide more accurate and detailed information, but it can also be detected by firewalls or intrusion detection systems (IDS).

  Passive foot printing involves observing or capturing network traffic without sending any packets or requests to the target, such as using tools like tcpdump, Wireshark, or Shodan. Passive foot printing can provide less information, but it can also avoid detection by firewalls or IDS. The example in the question shows that the attacker has gained access to the syslog server on a LAN and reviewed the syslog entries to prioritize possible next targets. A syslog server is a server that collects and stores log messages from various devices or applications on a network. A syslog entry is a record of an event or activity that occurred on a device or application, such as an error, a warning, or an alert. By reviewing the syslog entries, the attacker can obtain information about the network or system, such as its configuration, status, performance, or security issues. This is an example of passive network foot printing, as the attacker is not sending any packets or requests to the target, but rather observing or capturing network traffic from the syslog server. The other options are not correct, as they describe different techniques or concepts. OS fingerprinting is a technique of identifying the operating system of a target by analyzing its responses to certain packets or requests, such as using tools like Nmap or Xprobe2. OS fingerprinting can be done actively or passively, but it is not what the attacker is doing in the example. Service port identification is a technique of identifying the services running on a target by scanning its open ports and analyzing its responses to certain packets or requests, such as using tools like Nmap or Netcat. Service port identification can be done actively or passively, but it is not what the attacker is doing in the example. Application versioning is a concept that refers to the process of assigning unique identifiers to different versions of an application, such as using numbers, letters, dates, or names.

  Application versioning can help to track changes, updates, bugs, or features of an application, but it is not related to what the attacker is doing in the example.

• Question 476:

  To comply with regulatory requirements, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) must lead the company through simulations to find which steps are missing m emergency situations or incident processes.

  Which of the following should the CEO do?

  A. Implement the incident response plan.
  B. Leverage the appropriate playbook.
  C. Develop a business continuity plan.
  D. Perform a tabletop exercise.
  D. Perform a tabletop exercise.

• Question 477:

  An organization has activated the CSIRT. A security analyst believes a single virtual server was compromised and immediately isolated from the network.

  Which of the following should the CSIRT conduct next?

  A. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity
  B. Restore the affected server to remove any malware
  C. Contact the appropriate government agency to investigate
  D. Research the malware strain to perform attribution
  A. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity

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  Explanation

  The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image" specific point in time. Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence.

• Question 478:

  A security analyst performs a weekly vulnerability scan on a network that has 240 devices and receives a report with 2.450 pages.

  Which of the following would most likely decrease the number of false positives?

  A. Manual validation
  B. Penetration testing
  C. A known-environment assessment
  D. Credentialed scanning
  D. Credentialed scanning

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  Explanation

  Credentialed scanning is a method of vulnerability scanning that uses valid user credentials to access the target systems and perform a more thorough and accurate assessment of their security posture. Credentialed scanning can help to reduce the number of false positives by allowing the scanner to access more information and resources on the systems, such as configuration files, registry keys, installed software, patches, and permissions .

  https://www.tenable.com/blog/credentialed-vulnerability-scanning-what-why-and-how

• Question 479:

  A security team is struggling with alert fatigue, and the Chief Information Security Officer has decided to purchase a SOAR platform to alleviate this issue.

  Which of the following BEST describes how a SOAR platform will help the security team?

  A. SOAR will integrate threat intelligence into the alerts, which will help the security team decide which events should be investigated first.
  B. A SOAR platform connects the SOC with the asset database, enabling the security team to make informed decisions immediately based on asset criticality.
  C. The security team will be able to use the SOAR framework to integrate the SIEM with a TAXII server, which has an automated intelligence feed that will enhance the alert data.
  D. Logic can now be created that will allow the SOAR platform to block specific traffic at the firewall according to predefined event triggers and actions.
  A. SOAR will integrate threat intelligence into the alerts, which will help the security team decide which events should be investigated first.

• Question 480:

  Which of the following best describes root cause analysis?

  A. It describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures used in an incident.
  B. It provides a detailed path outlining the origin of an issue and how to eliminate it permanently.
  C. It outlines the who-what-when-where-why, which is often used in conjunction with legal proceedings.
  D. It generates a report of ongoing activities, including what was done, what is being done, and what will be done next.
  B. It provides a detailed path outlining the origin of an issue and how to eliminate it permanently.