CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 491:

  During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflow vulnerability.

  Which of the following would be best to mitigate the vulnerability at the application level?

  A. Perform OS hardening.
  B. Implement input validation.
  C. Update third-party dependencies.
  D. Configure address space layout randomization.
  B. Implement input validation.

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  Explanation

  Implementing input validation is the best way to mitigate the buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or unexpected input, and protect the application from being compromised 12.

  References:

  How to detect, prevent, and mitigate buffer overflow attacks - Synopsys, How to mitigate buffer overflow vulnerabilities | Infosec

• Question 492:

  A security analyst investigates a malware alert from a critical system. The following information is present in the ticket:

  

  Which of the following should the analyst do first?

  A. Block the suspicious IP address 128.210.175.23.
  B. Determine whether sssh is a malicious program.
  C. Delete the suspicious files.
  D. Review the Apache logs.
  A. Block the suspicious IP address 128.210.175.23.

• Question 493:

  A SOC manager who recently switched companies notices that their new company's SOC analysts have significantly poorer operational metrics compared to their previous company, without any major difference in alert volume or team size.

  Which of the following are most likely to be the cause? (Choose two.)

  A. Use of OSSTMM
  B. Integration of webhooks
  C. Lack of SOAR implementation
  D. Absence of single pane of glass
  E. Morale issues among SOC staff
  F. Usage of API gateways
  C. Lack of SOAR implementation
  E. Morale issues among SOC staff

• Question 494:

  A security analyst is monitoring a company's network traffic and finds ping requests going to accounting and human resources servers from a SQL server. Upon investigation, the analyst discovers a technician responded to potential network connectivity issues.

  Which of the following is the best way for the security analyst to respond?

  A. Report this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate.
  B. Isolate the system and begin a forensic investigation to determine what was compromised.
  C. Recommend network segmentation to the management team as a way to secure the various environments.
  D. Implement host-based firewalls on all systems to prevent ping sweeps in the future.
  A. Report this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate.

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  Explanation

  Reporting this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate, is the best way for the security analyst to respond. A false positive is a condition in which harmless traffic is classified as a potential network attack by a security monitoring tool. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity issues. The technician who responded to potential network connectivity issues was performing a legitimate task and did not pose any threat to the accounting and human resources servers .

  https://www.techopedia.com/definition39/memory-dump

• Question 495:

  Security analysts review logs on multiple servers on a daily basis.

  Which of the following implementations will give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually?

  A. Deploy a database to aggregate the logging
  B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM
  C. Share the log directory on each server to allow local access.
  D. Automate the emailing of logs to the analysts.
  B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM

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  Explanation

  The best implementation to give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually is B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that helps organizations detect, analyze, and respond to security threats before they disrupt business 1. SIEM tools collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from various sources across an organization's network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users. SIEM tools also provide real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks. By configuring the servers to forward logs to a SIEM, the security analysts can have a central view of potential threats and monitor security incidents across the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually. This can save time, improve efficiency, and enhance security posture.

  Deploying a database to aggregate the logging (A) may not provide the same level of analysis, correlation, and alerting as a SIEM tool. Sharing the log directory on each server to allow local access ?may not be scalable or secure for a large number of servers. Automating the emailing of logs to the analysts (D) may not be timely or effective for real-time threat detection and response. Therefore, B is the best option among the choices given.

• Question 496:

  A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server. The analyst issues the ps command and receives the following output:

  

  Which of the following commands should the administrator run next to further analyze the compromised system?

  A. gbd /proc1
  B. rpm -V openssh-server
  C. /bin/Is -1 /proc1/exe
  D. kill -9 1301
  C. /bin/Is -1 /proc1/exe

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  Explanation

  /bin/ls -1 /proc1/exe is the command that will show the absolute path to the executed binary file associated with the process ID 1301, which is ./usr/sbin/sshd. This information can help the security analyst determine if the binary is an official version and has not been modified, which could be an indicator of a compromise. /proc1/exe is a special symbolic link that points to the executable file that was used to start the process 1301 .

  https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions854/how-does-the-proc-pid-exe-symlinkdiffer-from-ordinary-symlinks

• Question 497:

  Based on an internal assessment, a vulnerability management team wants to proactively identify risks to the infrastructure prior to production deployments.

  Which of the following best supports this approach?

  A. Threat modeling
  B. Penetration testing
  C. Bug bounty
  D. SDLC training
  A. Threat modeling

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  Explanation

  Threat modeling is a proactive approach used to identify, analyze, and mitigate potential threats before they impact production systems. It is especially useful in early development stages to anticipate vulnerabilities and attack paths. Option B (Penetration testing) is a reactive measure performed on deployed systems, rather than prior to production.

  Option C (Bug bounty) programs incentivize external researchers but do not proactively model risks before deployment.

  Option D (SDLC training) improves security awareness but does not actively assess risks.

  Thus, A (Threat modeling) is the best choice, as it enables early identification and mitigation of security risks.

• Question 498:

  A red team engineer discovers that analyzing multiple pieces of less sensitive public information results in knowledge of a sensitive piece of confidential information.

  Which of the following best describes this security issue?

  A. Inference
  B. Stored procedure
  C. Aggregation
  D. Cross-origin resource sharing
  A. Inference

• Question 499:

  A Chief Information Security Officer is concerned that contract developers may be able to steal the code used to design the company's latest application since they are able to pull code from a cloud-based repository directly to laptops that are not owned by the company.

  Which of the following solutions would best protect the company code from being stolen?

  A. MDM
  B. SCA
  C. CASB
  D. VDI
  D. VDI

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  Explanation

  VDI provides a secure environment for accessing company resources, such as code repositories, from remote locations. With VDI, the code repository would be accessed through a virtual desktop hosted on the company's servers, rather than on the developer's laptop. This means that the company's IT department can control the virtual desktop and ensure that it is secure, including installing security software, monitoring activity, and limiting access to the code repository.

• Question 500:

  A Chief Finance Officer receives an email from someone who is possibly impersonating the company's Chief Executive Officer and requesting a financial operation.

  Which of the following should an analyst use to verify whether the email is an impersonation attempt?

  A. PKI
  B. MFA
  C. SMTP
  D. DKIM
  D. DKIM