CompTIA CS0-003 Online Practice
Questions and Exam Preparation
CS0-003 Exam Details
Exam Code
:CS0-003
Exam Name
:CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+)
Certification
:CompTIA Certifications
Vendor
:CompTIA
Total Questions
:680 Q&As
Last Updated
:Jun 02, 2026
CompTIA CS0-003 Online Questions &
Answers
Question 231:
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about new privacy regulations that apply to the company. The CISO has tasked a security analyst with finding the proper control functions to verify that a user's data is not altered without the user's consent.
Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action?
A. Automate the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data. B. Use encryption first and then hash the data at regular, defined times. C. Use a DLP product to monitor the data sets for unauthorized edits and changes. D. Replicate the data sets at regular intervals and continuously compare the copies for unauthorized changes.
A. Automate the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data.
Explanation
Automating the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data is an appropriate course of action to ve" Hashing is a technique that produces a unique and fixed-length value for a given input, such as a file or a message. Hashing can help to verify the data integrity by comparing the hash values of the original and modified data. If the hash values match, then the data has not been altered without the "lues differ, then the data may have been tampered with or corrupted .
Question 232:
The DevSecOps team is remediating an SSRF issue on the company's public-facing website.
Which of the following is the best mitigation technique to address this issue?
A. Place a WAF in front of the web server. B. Install a CASB in front of the web server C. Put a forward proxy in front of the web server. D. Implement MFA in front of the web server
A. Place a WAF in front of the web server.
Question 233:
As part of an incident investigation, an analyst creates a detailed document that describes all activities, timelines, root causes, and mitigation actions.
Which of the following reports is the analyst creating?
A. Lessons learned B. Business impact analysis C. Tabletop exercise D. Change control
A. Lessons learned
Question 234:
Several vulnerability scan reports have indicated runtime errors as the code is executing. The dashboard that lists the errors has a command-line interface for developers to check for vulnerabilities.
Which of the following will enable a developer to correct this issue?
(Select two).
A. Performing dynamic application security testing B. Reviewing the code C. Fuzzing the application D. Debugging the code E. Implementing a coding standard F. Implementing IDS
B. Reviewing the code D. Debugging the code
Explanation
Reviewing the code and debugging the code are two methods that can help a developer identify and fix runtime errors in the code. Reviewing the code involves checking the syntax, logic, and structure of the code for any errors or inconsistencies. Debugging the code involves running the code in a controlled environment and using tools such as breakpoints, watches, and logs to monitor the execution and find the source of errors. Both methods can help improve the quality and security of the code.
Question 235:
A digital forensics investigator works from duplicate images to preserve the integrity of the original evidence.
Which of the following types of media are most volatile and should be preserved?
(Select two).
A. Memory cache B. Registry file C. SSD storage D. Temporary filesystems E. Packet decoding F. Swap volume
A. Memory cache F. Swap volume
Explanation
Memory cache and swap volume are types of media that are most volatile and should be preserved during a digital forensics investigation. Volatile media are those that store data temporarily and lose their contents when the power is turned off or interrupted. Memory cache is a small and fast memory that stores frequently used data or instructions for faster access by the processor. Swap volume is a part of the hard disk that is used as an extension of the memory when the memory is full or low .
There are several reports of sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services. The company would like to improve its security posture against this threat.
Which of the following security controls would best support the company in this scenario?
A. Implement step-up authentication for administrators B. Improve employee training and awareness C. Increase password complexity standards D. Deploy mobile device management
B. Improve employee training and awareness
Explanation
The best security control to implement against sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services is to improve employee training and awareness. Employee training and awareness can help educate employees on the risks and consequences of using file sharing services for sensitive information, as well as the policies and procedures for handling such information securely and appropriately. Employee training and awareness can also help foster a security culture and encourage employees to report any incidents or violations of information security.
Question 237:
A security analyst needs to block vulnerable ports and disable legacy protocols.
After blocking NetBIOS trio, Telnet, SMB, and TFTP, which additional protocol should be blocked?
A. LDAPS v3 B. SNMP v1 C. TLS 1.3 D. Kerberos v5
B. SNMP v1
Question 238:
While performing a dynamic analysis of a malicious file, a security analyst notices the memory address changes every time the process runs.
Which of the following controls is most likely preventing the analyst from finding the proper memory address of the piece of malicious code?
A. Address space layout randomization B. Data execution prevention C. Stack canary D. Code obfuscation
A. Address space layout randomization
Explanation
Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows 1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs 2. The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs. Data execution prevention (B) is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap 3. Stack canary ?is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function's return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows. Code obfuscation (D) is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.
Question 239:
A security analyst would like to integrate two different SaaS-based security tools so that one tool can notify the other in the event a threat is detected.
Which of the following should the analyst utilize to best accomplish this goal?
A. SMB share B. API endpoint C. SMTP notification D. SNMP trap
B. API endpoint
Explanation
An API endpoint is a point of entry for a communication between two different SaaS-based security tools. It allows one tool to send requests and receive responses from the other tool using a common interface. An API endpoint can be used to notify the other tool in the event a threat is detected and trigger an appropriate action. SMB share, SMTP notification, and SNMP trap are not suitable for SaaS integration security, as they are either network protocols or email services that do not provide a direct and secure communication between two different SaaS tools.
References:
Top 10 Best SaaS Security Tools - 2023, What is SaaS Security? A Guide to Everything SaaS Security, 6 Key Considerations for SaaS Integration Security | Prismatic, Introducing Security for Interconnected SaaS - Palo Alto Networks
Question 240:
A security analyst is looking for information that would serve as an indicator that a given IP address is Involved in other attacks.
Which of the following sources of information should the analyst use to achieve this objective?
A. AbuseIPDB B. Autonomous System Number C. Whois D. Cuckoo Sandbox
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