ASCP ASCP-MLT Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

ASCP ASCP-MLT Online Questions & Answers

• Question 191:

  The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is:

  A. Osmotic gradient
  B. Concentration of blood components
  C. Rate of blood flow through the kidneys
  D. Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts
  D. Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

• Question 192:

  A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain, but which of the following enzymes will be elevated FIRST if the patient had an MI?

  A. LD
  B. CK
  C. AST
  D. ALT
  B. CK

• Question 193:

  Allergen-specific IgE, synthesized in response to allergens, becomes fixed to receptors on cellular membranes, especially those of basophils. If these receptor-bound IgE molecules are aggregated on re-exposure to specific allergen, both mast cells and basophils produce mediators that result in the allergic response. IgE-antigen interaction at the cell surface causes degranulation of cells and release of substances including: histamine, SRS-A, platelet activator, a kallikrein, and an eosinophil chemotactic factor. Basophils are the principal cells that bind IgE antibody while their number of receptor sites is proportional to serum IgE levels. Eosinophils are drawn to the site by the basophil chemotaxis mechanism, but are not the main cell which binds the IgE antibody.

  Immunology

  The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are:

  A. Basophils
  B. Eosinophils
  C. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils
  D. Macrophages
  A. Basophils

• Question 194:

  Incompatiblity involving the ABO blood group system can cause the most severe type of transfusion reaction. The cause of the most severe life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reactions is:

  A. Anti-D
  B. Anti-M
  C. Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B
  D. Anti-Fya
  C. Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A, B

• Question 195:

  Provide the equivalent measurement for one pint.

  A. 4.2 liters
  B. 0.25 liters
  C. 0.1 liter
  D. 0.474 liters
  D. 0.474 liters

• Question 196:

  Once substance H is developed, the addition of the sugar N-acetylgalactosamine to the terminal position of the chain gives the molecule "A" antigenic activity. Which specific terminal sugar causes a red cell to have A antigenic activity?

  A. Galactose plus glucose
  B. Galactose
  C. N-acetylgalactosamine
  D. Glucose
  C. N-acetylgalactosamine

• Question 197:

  The negative antigen frequencies are used in the formula below to determine the percent of type-specific units that would be compatible for the patient. Negative antigen frequencies are determined by subtracting the percent antigen

  frequency from 100%. The negative antigen frequency for K in this case is .91 (1.00 - .09) and the negative antigen frequency for Fya is .34 (1.00 - .66).

  % compatible units available = 100 x (Neg frequency #1 x Neg frequency #2...)

  For this case, the calculation is:

  % compatible units available = 100 x (0.91 x 0.34) = 30.94 or 31%

  If the antigen frequencies for K = 0.09 and Fya = 0.66, what percent of type-specific units would be compatible for a patient with anti-K and anti-Fya?

  A. 10
  B. 43
  C. 31
  D. 92
  E. 100
  C. 31

• Question 198:

  Darkfield microscopy allows a lower limit of resolution than bright-field microscopy which helps the tiny spirochetes to be seen in patient samples. In darkfield microscpy, there is a dark background where directly transmitted light is excluded by a dark-field condenser allowing only scattered light to be focused on the specimen. With dark-field microscopy bacteria appear luminous against a dark background.

  Which of the following microscopic techniques is best suited for direct examination of the infectious agent of syphilis?

  A. Light microscopy
  B. Phase microscopy
  C. Darkfield microscopy
  D. Electron microscopy
  C. Darkfield microscopy

• Question 199:

  Stuart Prower factor, or factor X, would cause abnormal PT, aPTT, and dRVVT test results as factor X is part of the common coagulation pathway and therefore measured in both the PT and aPTT test. In the dRVVT test, factor X is directly activated in the test principle; therefore an abnormal result would be expected in this test as well if there was a deficiency in factor X.

  What tests will be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower Factor deficiency?

  A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
  B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
  C. Russel Viper Venom Test (dRVVT)
  D. a and b
  E. a and b and c
  E. a and b and c

• Question 200:

  The cell depicted with the arrow in this image is an atypical (reactive) lymphocyte. These cells are common found in certain viral infections, especially infectious mononucleosis. Notice the larger size and abundant cytoplasm present in this lymphocyte. There is also apparent vacuoliation which is a key feature of atypical lymphocytes. The chromatin pattern of this cell as well as the overall shape, color and size rules out the monocyte, macrophage, and mesothelial cell choices.

  

  A patient with an infectious mononucleosis infection presents in the emergency room. Physicians order a spinal tap which is immediately sent to the laboratory for review. Please identify the cell in the image below from this patient's cerebrospinal fluid sample.

  A. Reactive Lymphocyte
  B. Monocyte
  C. Macrophage
  D. Mesothelial Cell
  A. Reactive Lymphocyte