PMI CAPM PMI-100 Questions & Answers

• Question 51:

  Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

  A. Verified deliverables.

  B. Validated deliverables.

  C. Acceptance criteria.

  D. Activity resource requirements.

  Correct Answer: A

  Explanation:

  Process: 8.3 Control QualityDefinition: The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes. Key Benefit: The key benefits of this process include: (1) identifying the causes of poor process or product quality and recommending and/or taking action to eliminate them; and (2) validating that project deliverables and work meet the requirements specified by key stakeholders necessary for final acceptance.

  Inputs

  1.

  Project management plan

  2.

  Quality metrics

  3.

  Quality checklists

  4.

  Work performance data

  5.

  Approved change requests

  6.

  Deliverables

  7.

  Project documents

  8.

  Organizational process assets

  Tools and Techniques

  1.

  Seven basic quality tools

  2.

  Statistical sampling

  3.

  Inspection

  4.

  Approved change requests review

  Outputs

  1.

  Quality control measurements

  2.

  Validated changes

  3.

  Verified deliverables

  4.

  Work performance information

  5.

  Change requests

  6.

  Project management plan updates

  7.

  Project documents updates

  8.

  Organizational process assets updates

• Question 52:

  The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

  A. Analysis

  B. Appetite

  C. Tolerance

  D. Response

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  11 PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT

  [..]

  Organizations perceive risk as the effect of uncertainty on projects and organizational objectives.

  Organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk depending on their risk

  attitude. The risk attitudes of both the organization and the stakeholders may be influenced by a number of

  factors, which are broadly classifed into three themes:

  

  Risk appetite

  , which is the degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward.

  Risk tolerance, which is the degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individualwill withstand.

  Risk threshold, which refers to measures along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may have a specific interest. Below that risk threshold, the organization will accept the risk. Above that risk threshold, the organization will not tolerate the risk. For example, an organization's risk attitude may include its appetite for uncertainty, its threshold for risk levels that are unacceptable, or its risk tolerance at which point the organization may select a different risk response. Positive and negative risks are commonly referred to as opportunities and threats. The project may be accepted if the risks are within tolerances and are in balance with the rewards that may be gained by taking the risks. Positive risks that offer opportunities within the limits of risk tolerances may be pursued in order to generate enhanced value. For example, adopting an aggressive resource optimization technique is a risk taken in anticipation of a reward for using fewer resources.

• Question 53:

  In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

  A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

  B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

  C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

  D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation:

  4.1.2.1 Expert Judgment

  Expert judgment is often used to assess the inputs used to develop the project charter. Expert judgment is applied to all technical and management details during this process. Such expertise is provided by any group or individual with specialized knowledge or training and is available from many sources, including:

  Other units within the organization,

  Consultants,

  Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors,

  Professional and technical associations,

  Industry groups,

  Subject matter experts (SME), and

  Project management office (PMO).

  Process: 13.2 Plan Stakeholder Management

  Definition: Stakeholder Management is the process of developing appropriate management strategies to

  effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life cycle, based on the analysis of their needs,

  interests, and potential impact on project success.

  Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it provides a clear, actionable plan to interact with project stakeholders to support the project's interests.

  Inputs

  1.

  Project management plan

  2.

  Stakeholder register

  3.

  Enterprise environmental factors

  4.

  Organizational process assets

  Tools and Techniques

  1.

  Expert judgment

  2.

  Meetings

  3.

  Analytical techniques

  Outputs

  Stakeholder management plan

  Project documents updates

• Question 54:

  Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

  A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

  B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

  C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

  D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  Knowledge Areas

  1.

  4. Project Integration Management

  2.

  5. Project Scope Management

  3.

  6. Project Time Management

  4.

  7. Project Cost Management

  5.

  8. Project Quality Management

  6.

  9. Project Human Resource Management

  7.

  10.Project Communications Management

  8.

  11.Project Risk Management

  9.

  12.Project Procurement Management 10.13.Project Stakeholder Management

  Planning Process Group

  4.2

  Develop Project Management Plan

  5.1

  Plan Scope Management

  5.2 Collect Requirements

  5.3 Define Scope

  5.4

  Create WBS

  6.1

  Plan Schedule Management

  6.2 Define Activities

  6.3 Sequence Activities

  6.4 Estimate Activity Resources

  6.5 Estimate Activity Durations

  6.6

  Develop Schedule

  7.1

  Plan Cost Management

  7.2 Estimate Costs

  7.3

  Determine Budget

  8.1

  Plan Quality Management

  9.1

  Plan Human Resource Management

  10.1

  Plan Communications Management

  11.1

  Plan Risk Management

  11.2 Identify Risks

  11.3 Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

  11.4 Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

  11.5

  Plan Risk Responses

  12.1

  Plan Procurement Management

  13.2

  Plan Stakeholder Management

• Question 55:

  The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers’ needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

  A. Project management plan.

  B. Project charter.

  C. Work breakdown structure.

  D. Stakeholder register.

  Correct Answer: B

• Question 56:

  What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

  A. $50

  B. $100

  C. $125

  D. $175

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  Estimate to completion calculates how much more of the budget is needed to complete the project if

  everything continues at the current level of performance.

  EAC ‘atypical’ = AC + BAC - EV

  EAC ‘typical’ = AC + ((BAC - EV) / CPI)

• Question 57:

  Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

  A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

  B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

  C. Cost Pius Award Fee (CPAF)

  D. Time and Material (TandM)

  Correct Answer: B

  Explanation: Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF). This fixed-price arrangement gives the buyer and seller some flexibility in that it allows for deviation from performance, with financial incentives tied to achieving agreed upon metrics. Typically such financial incentives are related to cost, schedule, or technical performance of the seller. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. Under FPIF contracts, a price ceiling is set, and all costs above the price ceiling are the responsibility of the seller, who is obligated to complete the work.

• Question 58:

  A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

  A. Start-to-start (SS).

  B. Start-to-finish (SF).

  C. Finish-to-start (FS).

  D. Finish-to-finish (FF).

  Correct Answer: C

  Explanation:

  A finish-to-start (FS) relationship between two activities implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor.

  A finish-to-finish (FF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the completion of predecessor.

  A start-to-start (SS) relationship implies that the initiation of successor is dependent on the initiation of predecessor.

  A start-to-finish (SF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of successor is dependent on the initiation of its predecessor

• Question 59:

  Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

  A. Force/direct

  B. Withdraw/avoid

  C. Compromise/reconcile

  D. Collaborate/problem solve

  Correct Answer: C

• Question 60:

  Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

  A. Decomposition

  B. Modeling techniques

  C. Resource optimization

  D. Meetings

  Correct Answer: D

  Explanation:

  4.3.2.3 Meetings

  Meetings are used to discuss and address pertinent topics of the project when directing and managing project work. Attendees at the meetings may include the project manager, the project team and appropriate stakeholders involved or affected by the topics addressed. Each attendee should have a defined role to ensure appropriate participation. Meetings tend to be one of three types:

  Information exchange;

  Brainstorming, option evaluation, or design; or

  Decision making. Meeting types should not be mixed as a best practice. Meetings should be prepared with a well-defined agenda, purpose, objective, and time frame and should be appropriately documented with meeting minutes and action items. Meeting minutes should be stored as defined in the project management plan. Meetings are most effective when all participants can be face-to-face in the same location. Virtual meetings can be held using audio and/or video conferencing tools, but generally require additional preparation and organization to achieve the same effectiveness of a face-to-face meeting.

  Process: 4.5 Perform Integrated Change Control

  Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan; and communicating their disposition. It reviews all requests for changes or modifications to project documents, deliverables, baselines, or the project management plan and approves or rejects the changes. Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it allows for documented changes within the project to be considered in an integrated fashion while reducing project risk, which often arises from changes made without consideration to the overall project objectives or plans.

  Inputs

  1.

  Project management plan

  2.

  Work performance reports

  3.

  Change requests

  4.

  Enterprise environmental factors

  5.

  Organizational process assets

  Tools and Techniques

  1.

  Expert judgment

  2.

  Meetings

  3.

  Change control tools

  Outputs

  1.

  Approved change requests

  2.

  Change log

  3.

  Project management plan updates

  4.

  Project documents updates