Cisco 200-125 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Cisco 200-125 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 1001:

  Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

  A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
  B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
  C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
  D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
  E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
  A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
  D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.

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  The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.

  The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the

  sender waits for this acknowledgment before sending the next part.

  The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data appropriately.

• Question 1002:

  which two statements about link-state routing protocols are true?(choose two)

  A. Each router determines its own path to a destination
  B. Link-state routing protocols use split horizon to avoid routing loops
  C. Each router shares a database of known routes
  D. Each router is aware only of its neighbor routers
  E. Each router maintains its own unique routing database
  A. Each router determines its own path to a destination
  D. Each router is aware only of its neighbor routers

• Question 1003:

  Which three advantages can static routing provide over dynamic routing? (Choose three)

  A. Static routing is less time-consuming to manage in large networks than dynamic routing
  B. Static routing requires fewer resources than dynamic routing
  C. Static routes are more predictable than dynamic routes.
  D. Unlike dynamic routing, static routing can operate normally without routine advertisements
  E. Unlike dynamic routing, static routing allows the router to choose the best path
  F. Unlike dynamic routing, static routing can automatically adjust the topology when traffic requires rerouting
  B. Static routing requires fewer resources than dynamic routing
  C. Static routes are more predictable than dynamic routes.
  D. Unlike dynamic routing, static routing can operate normally without routine advertisements

• Question 1004:

  Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)

  A. 172.16.9.0
  B. 172.16.8.0
  C. 172.16.31.0
  D. 172.16.20.0
  A. 172.16.9.0
  C. 172.16.31.0
  D. 172.16.20.0

• Question 1005:

  After you configure a default route to the Internet on a router, the route is missing from the routing table. Which option describes a possible reason for the problem?

  A. The next-hop address is unreachable.
  B. The default route was configured on a passive interface.
  C. Dynamic routing is disabled.
  D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the interface used to reach the next hop.
  A. The next-hop address is unreachable.

• Question 1006:

  Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

  A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
  B. DHCP
  C. NHRP
  D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
  E. ISATAP tunneling
  A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
  D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration

• Question 1007:

  Which WAN technology uses labels to make decisions about data forwarding?

  A. Metro Ethernet
  B. Frame Relay
  C. MPLS
  D. ISDN
  E. VSAT
  C. MPLS

• Question 1008:

  Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?

  A. 802.1d
  B. 802.11
  C. 802.1w
  D. 802.1x
  D. 802.1x

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  802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN. The term 'supplicant' is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols. The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicant's identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport's arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.

• Question 1009:

  Which two commands can you use to configure an LACP EtherChannel? (Choose two)

  A. channel-group 10 mode on
  B. channel-group 10 mode auto
  C. channel-group 10 mode passive
  D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
  E. channel-group 10 mode active
  C. channel-group 10 mode passive
  E. channel-group 10 mode active

• Question 1010:

  Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse two)

  A. 50
  B. 1550
  C. 150
  D. 1250
  E. 2050
  A. 50
  B. 1550