CompTIA SY0-701 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-701 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 921:

  Which of the following is an example of a treatment strategy for a continuous risk?

  A. Email gateway to block phishing attempts
  B. Background checks for new employees
  C. Dual control requirements for wire transfers
  D. Branch protection as part of the CI/CD pipeline
  A. Email gateway to block phishing attempts

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  Explanation

  A continuous risk is an ongoing threat that requires ongoing mitigation and monitoring efforts. Phishing attempts are a continuous risk to organizations as attackers frequently target users via emails. An email gateway acts as a treatment strategy by actively filtering out malicious emails, thereby reducing the likelihood of successful phishing attacks. This proactive approach addresses the ongoing nature of the threat.

• Question 922:

  Which of the following would be the best way to test resiliency in the event of a primary power failure?

  A. Parallel processing
  B. Tabletop exercise
  C. Simulation testing
  D. Production failover
  D. Production failover

• Question 923:

  One of a company's vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update.

  Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?

  A. Virtualization
  B. Firmware
  C. Application
  D. Operating system
  B. Firmware

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  Explanation

  Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.

• Question 924:

  Which of the following would most likely be a hacktivist's motive?

  A. Financial gain
  B. Espionage
  C. Philosophical beliefs
  D. Revenge
  C. Philosophical beliefs

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  Explanation

  Hacktivists are typically driven by ideological or political motivations, using hacking to promote or protest specific philosophical beliefs or causes.

• Question 925:

  A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has developed information security policies that relate to the software development methodology.

  Which of the following would the CISO most likely include in the organization's documentation?

  A. Peer review requirements
  B. Multifactor authentication
  C. Branch protection tests
  D. Secrets management configurations
  A. Peer review requirements

• Question 926:

  A newly implemented wireless network is designed so that visitors can connect to the wireless network for business activities. The legal department is concerned that visitors might connect to the network and perform illicit activities.

  Which of me following should the security team implement to address this concern?

  A. Configure a RADIUS server to manage device authentication.
  B. Use 802.1X on all devices connecting to wireless.
  C. Add a guest captive portal requiring visitors to accept terms and conditions.
  D. Allow for new devices to be connected via WPS.
  C. Add a guest captive portal requiring visitors to accept terms and conditions.

• Question 927:

  A company wants to reduce the time and expense associated with code deployment.

  Which of the following technologies should the company utilize?

  A. Serverless architecture
  B. Thin clients
  C. Private cloud
  D. Virtual machines
  A. Serverless architecture

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  Explanation

  Serverless architecture allows companies to deploy code without managing the underlying infrastructure. This approach significantly reduces the time and expense involved in code deployment because developers can focus solely on writing code, while the cloud provider manages the servers, scaling, and maintenance. Serverless computing also enables automatic scaling and pay-per-execution billing, which further optimizes costs.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course covers cloud technologies, including serverless architectures, which are highlighted as a method to streamline and reduce costs associated with code deployment.

• Question 928:

  Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?

  A. An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive's name in the display field of the email.
  B. Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
  C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
  D. An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company's email portal.
  C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.

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  Explanation

  In a BEC attack, the attacker typically impersonates a high-ranking executive or authority figure within the organization and requests sensitive information or actions from employees. In this case, the HR director is requesting log-in credentials for a cloud administrator account, which is a classic example of BEC where the attacker seeks to gain access to privileged accounts through deception.

• Question 929:

  A systems administrator is working on a defense-in-depth strategy and needs to restrict activity from employees after hours.

  Which of the following should the systems administrator implement?

  A. Role-based restrictions
  B. Attribute-based restrictions
  C. Mandatory restrictions
  D. Time-of-day restrictions
  D. Time-of-day restrictions

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  Explanation

  To restrict activity from employees after hours, the systems administrator should implement time-of-day restrictions. This method allows access to network resources to be limited to specific times, ensuring that employees can only access systems during approved working hours. This is an effective part of a defense-in-depth strategy to mitigate risks associated with unauthorized access during off-hours, which could be a time when security monitoring might be less stringent.

  Time-of-day restrictions: These control access based on the time of day, preventing users from logging in or accessing certain systems outside of designated hours.

  Role-based restrictions: Control access based on a user's role within the organization.

  Attribute-based restrictions: Use various attributes (such as location, department, or project) to determine access rights.

  Mandatory restrictions: Typically refer to non-discretionary access controls, such as those based on government or organizational policy.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.6 - Implement and maintain identity and access management (Access controls: Time-of-day restrictions).

• Question 930:

  A security engineer is installing an IPS to block signature-based attacks in the environment.

  Which of the following modes will best accomplish this task?

  A. Monitor
  B. Sensor
  C. Audit
  D. Active
  D. Active

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  Explanation

  To block signature-based attacks, the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) must be in active mode. In this mode, the IPS can actively monitor and block malicious traffic in real time based on predefined signatures. This is the best mode to prevent known attack types from reaching the internal network.

  Monitor mode and sensor mode are typically passive, meaning they only observe and log traffic without actively blocking it.

  Audit mode is used for review purposes and does not actively block traffic.