CompTIA SY0-701 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-701 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 421:

  A company wants to prevent proprietary and confidential company information from being shared to outsiders.

  Which of the following would this best describe?

  A. MOA
  B. SLA
  C. MSA
  D. NDA
  D. NDA

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  Explanation

  A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is a legal contract that restricts parties from disclosing proprietary or confidential information to unauthorized individuals or organizations, making it the most suitable option for protecting sensitive company data.

• Question 422:

  A company plans to secure its systems by:

  1. Preventing users from sending sensitive data over corporate email

  2. Restricting access to potentially harmful websites

  Which of the following features should the company set up? (Choose two.)

  A. DLP software
  B. DNS filtering
  C. File integrity monitoring
  D. Stateful firewall
  E. Guardrails
  F. Antivirus signatures
  A. DLP software
  B. DNS filtering

• Question 423:

  A company is concerned about weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime.

  Which of the following should the company consider?

  A. Clustering servers
  B. Geographic dispersion
  C. Load balancers
  D. Off-site backups
  B. Geographic dispersion

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  Explanation

  Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption.

  The other options are not the best ways to address the company's concern: Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building.

  Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to optimize the utilization, efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building.

  Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the availability or continuity of the network services.

  References:

  1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97

  2: High Availability -CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -3.4, video by Professor Messer

  3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98

  4: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

• Question 424:

  A security team installs an IPS on an organization's network and needs to configure the system to detect and prevent specific network attacks.

  Which of the following settings should the team configure first within the IPS?

  A. Allow list policies
  B. Packet Inspection
  C. Logging and reporting
  D. Firewall rules
  B. Packet Inspection

• Question 425:

  A company uses its backups to recover from a ransomware attack.

  Which of the following best guarantees that the backups are not infected?

  A. Immutability
  B. Destruction
  C. Sanitization
  D. Retention
  A. Immutability

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  Explanation

  The correct answer is immutability, which is a critical concept in backup security and ransomware resilience as covered in the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study guide. Immutability ensures that backup data, once written, cannot be altered, modified, or deleted for a defined period of time. This protection is essential in ransomware recovery scenarios because modern ransomware often attempts to encrypt or delete backups to prevent recovery.

  Immutable backups are typically implemented using write-once-read-many (WORM) storage or immutable cloud storage configurations. When immutability is enforced, even administrators or attackers with elevated privileges cannot modify the backup contents during the retention window. As a result, organizations can be confident that their backups remain in a known-good, unaltered state, free from ransomware infection or tampering.

  The other options do not provide the same guarantee. Destruction refers to permanently deleting data, which would eliminate backups rather than protect them. Sanitization is the process of securely erasing data from storage media and is unrelated to preserving clean backups. Retention defines how long backups are kept but does not protect them from being modified or encrypted during that period.

  From a Security+ SY0-701 perspective, immutability is closely tied to resilience, recovery, and data protection strategies. It supports business continuity by ensuring that organizations can reliably restore systems after an attack. Immutable backups are a cornerstone of modern ransomware defense strategies because they prevent attackers from corrupting recovery data. Therefore, immutability is the best and most effective control to guarantee that backups used for recovery are not infected.

• Question 426:

  When used with an access control vestibule which of the following would provide the best prevention against tailgating?

  A. PIN
  B. Access card
  C. Security guard
  D. CCTV
  C. Security guard

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  Explanation

  A security guard actively monitors and enforces access control policies in an access control vestibule (mantrap), ensuring that only authorized individuals enter. Unlike PINs, access cards, or CCTV (which only record events), a security guard can physically intervene to prevent tailgating - where an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into a restricted area.

• Question 427:

  Which of the following steps in the risk management process involves establishing the scope and potential risks involved with a project?

  A. Risk assessment
  B. Risk identification
  C. Risk treatment
  D. Risk monitoring and review
  B. Risk identification

• Question 428:

  Which of the following is the act of proving to a customer that software developers are trained on secure coding?

  A. Assurance
  B. Contract
  C. Due diligence
  D. Attestation
  B. Contract

• Question 429:

  A company's web filter is configured to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found.

  Which of the following search strings should an analyst employ to prohibit access to non-encrypted websites?

  A. encryption=off\
  B. http://
  C. www.*.com
  D. :443
  B. http://

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  Explanation

  A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words "gambling", "porn", or "malware" in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components: protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment. The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as www.google.com or www.bing.com. The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.

  To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with

  http://,

  followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example,

  http://www.example.com

  or

  http://www.example.com:80.

  By scanning the URL for the string

  http://,

  the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites. The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).

• Question 430:

  A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud-based.

  Which of the following meets these requirements?

  A. Serverless framework
  B. Type 1 hvpervisor
  C. SD-WAN
  D. SDN
  A. Serverless framework

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  Explanation

  A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions. A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.

  SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself.

  Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.

  SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264- 265

  Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00

  [Serverless Framework]

  [Type 1 Hypervisor]

  [SD-WAN]

  [SDN].