CompTIA SY0-701 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-701 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 261:

  A company wants to minimize the chance of its outgoing marketing emails getting flagged as spam. The company decides to list the email servers on the proper DNS record.

  Which of the following protocols should the company apply next?

  A. DMARC
  B. DLP
  C. DKIM
  D. SPF
  C. DKIM

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  Explanation

  After listing authorized email servers in DNS using SPF, the next protocol the company should apply is DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). DKIM provides cryptographic assurance that email messages have not been altered in transit and that they were legitimately sent by the domain owner. Security+ SY0-701 explains that DKIM works by digitally signing outgoing emails using a private key, which recipient servers verify using a public key stored in DNS.

  SPF validates where an email is sent from, but it does not protect message integrity. DKIM complements SPF by ensuring the message content is authentic, which significantly improves email reputation and reduces spam filtering issues.

  DMARC (A) builds on SPF and DKIM but requires both to be in place first. DLP (B) prevents data leakage and is unrelated to email reputation. SPF (D) was already applied, as stated in the question.

  Thus, the correct next step is C: DKIM.

• Question 262:

  Which of the following is best used to detect fraud by assigning employees to different roles?

  A. Least privilege
  B. Mandatory vacation
  C. Separation of duties
  D. Job rotation
  D. Job rotation

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  Explanation

  Job rotation is a strategy used in organizations to detect and prevent fraud by periodically assigning employees to different roles within the organization. This approach helps ensure that no single employee has exclusive control over a specific process or set of tasks for an extended period, thereby reducing the opportunity for fraudulent activities to go unnoticed. By rotating roles, organizations can uncover irregularities and discrepancies that might have been concealed by an employee who had prolonged access to sensitive functions. Job rotation also promotes cross-training, which can enhance the organization's overall resilience and flexibility.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Risk Management and Compliance.

• Question 263:

  An attacker submits a request containing unexpected characters in an attempt to gain unauthorized access to information within the underlying systems.

  Which of the following best describes this attack?

  A. Side loading
  B. Target of evaluation
  C. Resource reuse
  D. SQL injection
  D. SQL injection

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  Explanation

  SQL injection is an attack technique where an attacker includes unexpected characters or SQL code in a request to manipulate a database query, aiming to gain unauthorized access to data or execute additional database commands. This form of injection targets vulnerabilities in applications that don't properly validate input, allowing attackers to interact with underlying database systems maliciously.

• Question 264:

  Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Choose two).

  A. Ease of recovery
  B. Ability to patch
  C. Physical isolation
  D. Responsiveness
  E. Attack surface
  F. Extensible authentication
  A. Ease of recovery
  D. Responsiveness

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  Explanation

  Ease of recovery. This is essential for high availability because the network must be able to recover quickly from failures to minimize downtime. Responsiveness. Ensuring that the network can handle high traffic loads and respond quickly to user requests is crucial for maintaining high availability.

  Other factors like physical isolation, ability to patch, attack surface, and extensible authentication are important for security and maintenance but are not primary considerations for high availability.

• Question 265:

  Which of the following strategies should an organization use to efficiently manage and analyze multiple types of logs?

  A. Deploy a SIEM solution
  B. Create custom scripts to aggregate and analyze logs
  C. Implement EDR technology
  D. Install a unified threat management appliance
  A. Deploy a SIEM solution

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  Explanation

  Deploying a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution allows for efficient log aggregation, correlation, and analysis across an organization's infrastructure, providing real-time security insights.

  References:

  Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.

• Question 266:

  The author of a software package is concerned about bad actors repackaging and inserting malware into the software. The software download is hosted on a website, and the author exclusively controls the website's contents.

  Which of the following techniques would best ensure the software's integrity?

  A. Input validation
  B. Code signing
  C. Secure cookies
  D. Fuzzing
  B. Code signing

• Question 267:

  Which of the following technologies must be used in an organization that intends to automate infrastructure deployment?

  A. IaC
  B. IaaS
  C. IoC
  D. IoT
  A. IaC

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  Explanation

  Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is the technology required for automating infrastructure deployment. IaC allows organizations to define and deploy servers, networks, containers, and cloud resources using machine-readable configuration files rather than manual configuration. This leads to faster deployment, consistent environments, repeatability, version control, and lower human error.

  CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights IaC as a foundational component of DevOps and modern cloud operations. It supports automated provisioning through tools such as Terraform, Ansible, CloudFormation, and Puppet. IaC also enhances security by enabling automated compliance checks and standardized hardened configurations.

  IaaS (B) is a cloud service model, not an automation mechanism. IoC (C) refers to Indicators of Compromise used in threat intelligence. IoT (D) refers to Internet-connected devices and is unrelated to infrastructure deployment.

  Therefore, IaC is the required technology for automated, repeatable, secure infrastructure deployments.

• Question 268:

  Which of the following is the best way to secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider?

  A. Bollards
  B. Access badge
  C. Motion sensor
  D. Video surveillance
  B. Access badge

• Question 269:

  A company receives an alert that a widely used network device vendor has been banned by the government.

  What will general counsel most likely be concerned with during hardware refresh?

  A. Sanctions
  B. Data sovereignty
  C. Cost of replacement
  D. Loss of license
  A. Sanctions

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  Explanation

  When the government bans a vendor, the legal concern is sanctions-laws that restrict purchasing, using, or importing products from certain companies or countries. The general counsel's job is to ensure the organization is not violating federal restrictions, export controls, trade compliance laws, or sanctions lists such as OFAC or government procurement bans.

  Security+ SY0-701 notes that legal and regulatory compliance is a critical part of risk management, especially when handling prohibited vendors or technologies. Continued use of banned devices could expose the organization to legal penalties, fines, or federal investigation. Data sovereignty (B) refers to data storage location laws, not hardware bans. Cost of replacement (C) is an operational concern, not a legal one. Loss of license (D) typically applies to software, not network hardware.

  Therefore, the general counsel's primary concern is A: Sanctions.

• Question 270:

  A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment.

  Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?

  A. EAP
  B. DHCP
  C. IPSec
  D. NAT
  C. IPSec

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  Explanation

  IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client's network.

  References:

  CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0- 701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385