CompTIA SY0-701 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-701 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 131:

  A company wants to improve end users experiences when they tog in to a trusted partner website.

  The company does not want the users to be issued separate credentials for the partner website

  Which of the following should be implemented to allow users to authenticate using their own credentials to log in to the trusted partner's website?

  A. Directory service
  B. AAA server
  C. Federation
  D. Multifactor authentication
  C. Federation

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  Explanation

  Federation means the company trusts accounts created and managed by a different network. It connects the identity management services of multiple systems

• Question 132:

  A security administrator is working to secure company data on corporate laptops in case the laptops are stolen.

  Which of the following solutions should the administrator consider?

  A. Disk encryption
  B. Data loss prevention
  C. Operating system hardening
  D. Boot security
  A. Disk encryption

• Question 133:

  An architect has a request to increase the speed of data transfer using JSON requests externally. Currently, the organization uses SFTP to transfer data files.

  Which of the following will most likely meet the requirements?

  A. A website-hosted solution
  B. Cloud shared storage
  C. A secure email solution
  D. Microservices using API
  D. Microservices using API

• Question 134:

  A security architect wants to prevent employees from receiving malicious attachments by email.

  Which of the following functions should the chosen solution do?

  A. Apply IP address reputation data.
  B. Tap and monitor the email feed.
  C. Scan email traffic inline.
  D. Check SPF records.
  C. Scan email traffic inline.

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  Explanation

  Scanning email traffic inline enables the security solution to inspect attachments and other content in real-time as emails are received. This allows the system to detect and block malicious attachments before they reach employees, effectively preventing potential security incidents caused by harmful email attachments. This approach is essential for identifying and neutralizing threats within email content directly.

• Question 135:

  Which of the following would best prepare a security team for a specific incident response scenario?

  A. Situational awareness
  B. Risk assessment
  C. Root cause analysis
  D. Tabletop exercise
  D. Tabletop exercise

• Question 136:

  An organization is migrating several SaaS applications that support SSO. The security manager wants to ensure the migration is completed securely.

  Which of the following should the organization consider before implementation?

  (Select TWO).

  A. The back-end directory source
  B. The identity federation protocol
  C. The hashing method
  D. The encryption method
  E. The registration authority
  F. The certificate authority
  B. The identity federation protocol
  F. The certificate authority

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  Explanation

  For a secure SSO migration of SaaS applications, the organization should focus on the identity federation protocol and the certificate authority.

  B is correct because SSO between SaaS applications commonly relies on federation standards such as SAML, OAuth, or OpenID Connect. The organization must confirm which protocol will be used and how trust will be established between the identity provider and service providers.

  F is correct because certificates are used to establish trust in many SSO/federation implementations, especially with SAML. The certificate authority matters because certificate issuance, validation, signing, and trust chains are critical to secure authentication exchanges.

• Question 137:

  Which of the following provides the best protection against unwanted or insecure communications to and from a device?

  A. System hardening
  B. Host-based firewall
  C. Intrusion detection system
  D. Anti-malware software
  B. Host-based firewall

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  Explanation

  A host-based firewall monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic on a specific device, based on predetermined security rules. It provides protection by blocking unauthorized or potentially harmful communications, ensuring that only trusted traffic can access the device. This helps prevent both inbound and outbound threats at the device level.

• Question 138:

  A recent power outage halted operations at a company's only data center.

  Which of the following solutions would best prevent an event like this one in the future?

  A. Platform diversity
  B. Generator
  C. Snapshots
  D. Load balancing
  B. Generator

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  Explanation

  A generator provides backup power in the event of a power outage, ensuring that critical systems remain operational. Since the company's only data center was halted due to the outage, installing a generator would help prevent downtime in the future by supplying power when the main power source fails. Other options, such as snapshots and load balancing, do not directly address power failure issues.

• Question 139:

  Which of the following steps should be taken before mitigating a vulnerability in a production server?

  A. Escalate the issue to the SDLC team.
  B. Use the IR plan to evaluate the changes.
  C. Perform a risk assessment to classify the vulnerability.
  D. Refer to the change management policy.
  D. Refer to the change management policy.

• Question 140:

  The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) requires that new servers include hardware-level memory encryption.

  Which of the following data states does the CISO want to protect?

  A. Data in use
  B. Data at rest
  C. Data in transit
  D. Data sovereignty
  A. Data in use

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  Explanation

  Hardware-level memory encryption is designed to protect the contents of RAM from being read or stolen by an attacker who gains sufficient access (for example, through privileged malware, a hypervisor/host compromise, physical attacks like cold-boot techniques, or other memory-snooping methods). That maps directly to data in use, because "data in use" is the state where data is actively processed and often resides in memory during computation. The Study Guide explicitly defines the three data states and makes the connection to memory for data in use: "Data in use is data that is actively in use by a computer system. This includes the data stored in memory while processing takes place. An attacker with control of the system may be able to read the contents of memory and steal sensitive information." By contrast, data at rest focuses on storage media (disk, tape, cloud storage), data in transit focuses on network movement, and data sovereignty concerns jurisdiction/location requirements-none of which are directly addressed by encrypting RAM contents at the hardware level. Since the requirement is specifically "hardware-level memory encryption," the targeted data state is unambiguously data in use.

  References:

  Data state definitions-data in use includes data stored in memory while processing.