CompTIA SY0-601 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA SY0-601 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 841:

  A company completed a vulnerability scan. The scan found malware on several systems that were running older versions of Windows. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the malware infection?

  A. Open permissions
  B. Improper or weak patch management
  C. Unsecure root accounts
  D. Default settings
  B. Improper or weak patch management

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  The reason for this is that older versions of Windows may have known vulnerabilities that have been patched in more recent versions. If a company is not regularly patching their systems, they are leaving those vulnerabilities open to exploit, which can allow malware to infect the systems. It is important to regularly update and patch systems to address known vulnerabilities and protect against potential malware infections. This is an important aspect of proper security management. Here is a reference to the CompTIA Security+ certification guide which states that "Properly configuring and maintaining software, including patch management, is critical to protecting systems and data." Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: SY0-601 by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom https:// www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Security%2B+Study+Guide%3A+SY0- 601-p-9781119515968

• Question 842:

  A security analyst is reviewing a new website that will soon be made publicly available. The analyst sees the following in the URL:

  http://dev-site.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=77276554andloc=us

  The analyst then sends an internal user a link to the new website for testing purposes, and when the user clicks the link, the analyst is able to browse the website with the following URL:

  http://dev-site.comptia.org/home/show.php?sessionID=98988475andloc=us

  Which of the following application attacks is being tested?

  A. Pass-the-hash
  B. Session replay
  C. Object deference
  D. Cross-site request forgery
  B. Session replay

• Question 843:

  An information security officer at a credit card transaction company is conducting a framework-mapping exercise with the internal controls. The company recently established a new office in Europe. To which of the following frameworks should the security officer map the existing controls? (Select TWO).

  A. ISO
  B. PCI DSS
  C. SOC
  D. GDPR
  E. CSA
  F. NIST
  B. PCI DSS
  D. GDPR

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  No need for ISO as we are only in EU and USA region GDPR will do just fine, PCI DSS for card processing is always needed. It CompTIA they are tricky with there wording and they try to throw you off.

• Question 844:

  A security analyst must enforce policies to harden an MDM infrastructure. The requirements are as follows:

  1.

  Ensure mobile devices can be tracked and wiped.

  2.

  Confirm mobile devices are encrypted.

  Which of the following should the analyst enable on all the devices to meet these requirements?

  A. Geofencing
  B. Biometric authentication
  C. Geolocation
  D. Geotagging
  A. Geofencing

• Question 845:

  An organization wants seamless authentication to its applications. Which of the following should the organization employ to meet this requirement?

  A. SOAP
  B. SAML
  C. SSO
  D. Kerberos
  C. SSO

• Question 846:

  An organization's Chief Security Officer (CSO) wants to validate the business's involvement in the incident response plan to ensure its validity and thoroughness. Which of the following will the CSO MOST likely use?

  A. An external security assessment
  B. A bug bounty program
  C. A tabletop exercise
  D. A red-team engagement
  C. A tabletop exercise

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  https://www.redlegg.com/solutions/advisory-services/tabletop-exercise-pretty-much-everything-you-need-to-know

• Question 847:

  An organization maintains several environments in which patches are developed and tested before being deployed to an operational status. Which of the following is the environment in which patches will be deployed just prior to being put into an operational status?

  A. Development
  B. Staging
  C. Production
  D. Test
  B. Staging

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  Explanation Explanation/Reference:The staging environment is where patches are deployed just prior to being put into an operational status. It is a test environment that closely resembles the production environment, and it is used to ensure that patches are working correctly before they are deployed to the production environment. The development environment is where new patches are developed and tested before they are ready to be deployed to a test environment. The test environment is where patches are tested to ensure that they are working correctly before they are deployed to the staging environment. The production environment is the live operational environment where patches are deployed once they have been tested and approved.

• Question 848:

  Which of the following vulnerabilities is the attacker trying to exploit?

  A. SSRF
  B. CSRF
  C. xss
  D. SQLi
  D. SQLi

  ---

  SQLi stands for SQL injection, which is a type of web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL statements on a database server. SQLi can result in data theft, data corruption, denial of service, or remote code execution. The attacker in the web server log is trying to exploit a SQLi vulnerability by sending a malicious GET request that contains a UNION ALL SELECT statement. This statement is used to combine the results of two or more SELECT queries into a single result set. The attacker is attempting to retrieve user login, user pass, and user email from the wp users table, which is a WordPress database table that stores user information. The attacker may use this information to compromise the WordPress site or the users' accounts.

• Question 849:

  Which of the following policies would help an organization identify and mitigate potential single points of failure in the company's IT/security operations?

  A. Least privilege
  B. Awareness training
  C. Separation of duties
  D. Mandatory vacation
  C. Separation of duties

• Question 850:

  Which of the following would cause a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) the MOST concern regarding newly installed Internet-accessible 4K surveillance cameras?

  A. An inability to monitor 100% of every facility could expose the company to unnecessary risk.
  B. The cameras could be compromised if not patched in a timely manner.
  C. Physical security at the facility may not protect the cameras from theft.
  D. Exported videos may take up excessive space on the file servers.
  B. The cameras could be compromised if not patched in a timely manner.

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  A is wrong, Newly installed 4k cameras or newly installed potato camera's makes no difference. All cameras solutions inevitably lead to deadspots. This is common knowledge so wouldn't cause the MOST concern. B is right particularly because they are "Internet Accesible", and a 4K camera. So the most concerning thing is that these cameras are accesible to those who are not authorized for it. C Physical security will not prevent theft of the cameras, but their theft is an acceptable risk. D A CISO isn't bothered by the excessive space of the HQ video files. That is someone elses job to worry about.