CompTIA PK0-005 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA PK0-005 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 31:

  The goal of a project is to fulfill specific technical features requested by customers.

  Which of the following actions should the product owner take?

  A. Define the success criteria.
  B. Create a communication plan.
  C. Use a task board.
  D. Perform a root cause analysis.
  A. Define the success criteria.

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  Explanation

• Question 32:

  A critical piece of equipment that is needed for the installation of a point-of-sale solution is delayed from the manufacturer.

  The delay will cause the project to be significantly behind schedule.

  The project manager decides to buy the item at a higher cost from another vendor who can supply it immediately.

  Which of the following risk management approaches has the project manager taken?

  A. Mitigate
  B. Transfer
  C. Accept
  D. Share
  A. Mitigate

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  Explanation

• Question 33:

  During a staff meeting, a project manager voices a concern about the client billing rate for a particular engineer. Which of the following documents would the project manager need in order to find this information?

  A. SLA
  B. TOR
  C. SOW
  D. NDA
  C. SOW

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  Explanation

  In order to find the client billing rate for a particular engineer, the project manager would need to refer to the SOW (Statement of Work). The SOW is a document that outlines the work to be performed, the timeframe for completion, and the

  cost of the project. It also includes information about the resources involved in the project and their billing rates.

  References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2. The project manager would need a statement of work (SOW) to find information about the client billing rate for a particular engineer. A SOW is a document that defines the scope of work for a project or contract. It usually includes information

  such as deliverables, milestones, timeline, costs, payment terms, quality standards, and acceptance criteria. A SOW can help to specify what services or products will be provided by whom, when, where, how, and for how much.

• Question 34:

  Which of the following types of testing should be performed to be sure that an application functions as expected after code changes, updates, or improvements?

  A. High availability
  B. Regression
  C. Unit
  D. Smoke
  B. Regression

• Question 35:

  A project team selected a random sample of patient accounts for testing the deliverable. The data was masked since it contained patient names. Which of the following describes this type of data?

  A. Confidential information
  B. Protected health information
  C. Personally identifiable information
  D. Security clearance
  C. Personally identifiable information

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  Explanation

  Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, either alone or combined with other sources. PII includes information such as name, address, phone number, email

  address, social security number, etc. Patient names are examples of PII, and therefore the data that contains them should be masked or anonymized to protect the privacy and security of the patients. Confidential information, protected health

  information, and security clearance are not types of data, but rather categories or levels of data sensitivity that may require different degrees of protection or access control.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3:

  Project Planning, Section 3.4: Data Privacy and Security, p. 121;

  Patient Data: Types, Uses and Hospital Patient Databases;

  What is Patient Data and Why Is It Important?;

  Chapter 1 - Registrar Playbook

• Question 36:

  The high-level technical requirements for a new application state that the application should be suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Which of the following meets these requirements?

  A. Data warehouse
  B. SQL database
  C. Multitier architecture
  D. Content management system
  C. Multitier architecture

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  Explanation

  Multitier architecture is a type of software architecture that is suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Multitier architecture divides an application into logical layers or tiers that are distributed among different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well- defined interfaces. Multitier architecture can provide benefits such as scalability, performance, security, maintainability, and reusability for complex and large-scale applications.

• Question 37:

  A contractor attended a project meeting that was exclusively for company employees. Which of the following actions should the PM take?

  A. Escalate to vendor management.
  B. Consult the request for proposal.
  C. Review the meeting cadence.
  D. Reinforce the rules of engagement.
  D. Reinforce the rules of engagement.

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  Explanation

  The rules of engagement are the guidelines and expectations that define the relationship between the contractor and the company. They may include topics such as communication, confidentiality, access, security, performance, and

  compliance. The project manager should reinforce the rules of engagement with the contractor to ensure that they understand and respect the boundaries and protocols of the company. This will help to avoid any potential conflicts,

  misunderstandings, or breaches of contract.

  References:

  CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 7: Project Stakeholder Management, p. 239; Contractor Rules of Engagement - Cox Enterprises, p. 1; Legal Considerations for Engaging Contractors | LegalVision

• Question 38:

  A project team has identified a bug during user acceptance testing. Which of the following is the BEST method for communicating that bug to the development team?

  A. Call the development lead to discuss the fixes for the bug.
  B. Include the bug issue as part of the status update for stakeholders.
  C. Issue a change request.
  D. Add the bug issue to the project's risk register.
  C. Issue a change request.

• Question 39:

  During the execution phase, a new PM was assigned to a project. The PM received a request to add new functionality to the system that is being developed. While the PM was conducting a preliminary review with the team, the technical lead

  highlighted that this functionality request was rejected during the planning phase.

  Which of the following documents is the best source for the PM to use to confirm this assertion?

  A. Issue log
  B. Scope statement
  C. Risk report
  D. Change log
  D. Change log

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  Explanation

  A change log is a document that records and tracks the changes that are made to the project scope, schedule, budget, or quality. It helps the project manager to monitor and control the project performance and ensure that the changes are aligned with the project objectives and stakeholders' expectations. A change log can also include information such as the change description, impact, status, approval, and date. A change log is the best source for the PM to use to confirm the assertion that the functionality request was rejected during the planning phase, as it would show the details and reasons for the rejection.

• Question 40:

  A project manager is performing planning tasks for a complex project at a small company. Which of the following items would be of GREATEST importance during planning?

  A. Defining the project objectives, scope, and success criteria
  B. Assessing the resources available for operational support after project implementation
  C. Providing updates and status reports to the project owner and stakeholders
  D. Developing a records management plan and reviewing existing project artifacts
  A. Defining the project objectives, scope, and success criteria