Palo Alto Networks PCCP Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Palo Alto Networks PCCP Online Questions & Answers

• Question 11:

  Which characteristic differentiates a serverless function from a containerized application?

  A. Functions run continuously until manually stopped
  B. Functions execute only when triggered by events
  C. Containers rely solely on proprietary cloud services
  D. Containers require no packaged dependencies
  B. Functions execute only when triggered by events

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  Serverless functions (FaaS) execute in response to specific events and do not run continuously. This model reduces operational overhead and allows automatic scaling. Containers, by contrast, run persistently and encapsulate all application dependencies.

• Question 12:

  What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

  A. Decreased connection quality within a local area network
  B. Increased sharing of data through the internet
  C. Higher attack surface due to mobility
  D. Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security
  B. Increased sharing of data through the internet

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  IoT devices often have constant internet connectivity and increased data sharing, making them more vulnerable to command-and-control (C2) attacks. Their limited security features and exposure to external networks provide attackers more opportunities to compromise and control them remotely.

• Question 13:

  Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

  A. Sandboxing
  B. Stateless packet inspection
  C. Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)
  D. Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)
  C. Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

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  Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS) operate on endpoints to enforce security policies by monitoring system calls, file integrity, and configuration settings. HIPS can validate device compliance, including operating system versions and patch levels, before permitting network access. This capability prevents vulnerable or outdated devices from becoming attack vectors. Palo Alto Networks integrates HIPS functionalities in its endpoint security solutions, providing granular control to enforce organizational security standards and reduce risk from non-compliant endpoints. Unlike network-based inspection, HIPS works locally on hosts to stop threats at their origin.

• Question 14:

  Which two indicators may suggest an insider threat? (Choose two.)

  A. Sudden spike in failed authentication attempts
  B. Increased HTTPS traffic volume
  C. Unauthorized access to sensitive resources
  D. High CPU usage on public servers
  A. Sudden spike in failed authentication attempts
  C. Unauthorized access to sensitive resources

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  Unexpected authentication failures and unauthorized access attempts are strong indicators of identity misuse or malicious insider activity. Monitoring identity behavior with UEBA and ITDR helps detect these anomalies early.

• Question 15:

  What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)

  A. Multiple attack vectors
  B. Repeated pursuit of objective
  C. Reduced interaction time
  D. Tendency to isolate hosts
  A. Multiple attack vectors
  B. Repeated pursuit of objective

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  Multiple attack vectors - APTs often use various methods (phishing, malware, lateral movement) to infiltrate and maintain access to a target.

  Repeated pursuit of objective - APTs are known for their persistent nature, involving continuous efforts over time to achieve their goals, such as data theft or surveillance.

• Question 16:

  Which tool automates remediation of a confirmed cybersecurity breach?

  A. SIEM
  B. EDR
  C. SOAR
  D. ISIM
  C. SOAR

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  Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platforms are designed to automate the remediation of confirmed cybersecurity breaches by executing predefined response playbooks, reducing response time and manual effort during incidents.

• Question 17:

  Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

  A. API
  B. Code security
  C. Virtualization
  D. IRP
  B. Code security

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  Code security in cloud environments involves using tools like Static Application Security Testing (SAST) to automatically analyze source code for vulnerabilities before deployment. This helps identify and remediate potential threats early in the software development lifecycle.

• Question 18:

  Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

  A. DLP
  B. CASB
  C. DNS Security
  D. URL filtering
  B. CASB

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  A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) secures SaaS applications and network data by providing visibility, data security, threat protection, and compliance enforcement. It acts as a control point between users and cloud service providers to enforce security policies.

• Question 19:

  Which Palo Alto Networks tool maps attacker techniques to the MITRE ATTandCK framework?

  A. Cortex XSIAM
  B. Autonomous Digital Experience Management
  C. Prisma Access
  D. DNS Security
  A. Cortex XSIAM

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  Cortex XSIAM incorporates threat intelligence and analytics to map alerts and events to the MITRE ATTandCK framework. This provides SOC teams with structured insights into attacker behavior and helps accelerate investigation workflows.

• Question 20:

  A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network. Which technology meets this requirement?

  A. SIEM
  B. MDM
  C. EDR
  D. ADEM
  B. MDM

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  Mobile Device Management (MDM) enables firewall administrators to remotely and efficiently deploy corporate configurations, such as email accounts and VPN settings, to targeted mobile devices. It ensures consistent policy enforcement and security across all managed devices.