Palo Alto Networks PCCET Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Palo Alto Networks PCCET Online Questions & Answers

• Question 131:

  Which network is using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192?

  A. 192.10.100.0/26
  B. 172.16.72.0/29
  C. 172.168.5.0/27
  D. 192.168.100.0/24
  C. 172.168.5.0/27

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Reference: https://www.cloudaccess.net/cloud-control-panel-ccp/157-dns-management/322-subnet-masks-reference-table.html

• Question 132:

  DRAG DROP

  Match each tunneling protocol to its definition.

  Select and Place:

  

  

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  Explanation/Reference:

• Question 133:

  How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

  A. Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility
  B. Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure
  C. Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility
  D. Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility
  D. Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Prisma SaaS connects directly to the applications themselves, therefore providing continuous silent monitoring of the risks within the sanctioned SaaS applications, with detailed visibility that is not possible with traditional security solutions.

• Question 134:

  Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

  A. dynamic computing
  B. identity security
  C. compute security
  D. network protection
  C. compute security

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Prisma Cloud comprises four pillars: Visibility, governance, and compliance. Gain deep visibility into the security posture of multicloud environments. Track everything that gets deployed with an automated asset inventory, and maintain compliance with out-of-the-box governance policies that enforce good behavior across your environments. Compute security. Secure hosts, containers, and serverless workloads throughout the application lifecycle. Detect and prevent risks by integrating vulnerability intelligence into your integrated development environment (IDE), software configuration management (SCM), and CI/CD workflows. Enforce machine learning-based runtime protection to protect applications and workloads in real time. Network protection. Continuously monitor network activity for anomalous behavior, enforce microservice- aware micro-segmentation, and implement industry-leading firewall protection. Protect the network perimeter and the connectivity between containers and hosts. Identity security. Monitor and leverage user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) across your environments to detect and block malicious actions. Gain visibility into and enforce governance p

• Question 135:

  What does SIEM stand for?

  A. Security Infosec and Event Management
  B. Security Information and Event Management
  C. Standard Installation and Event Media
  D. Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
  B. Security Information and Event Management

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades

• Question 136:

  What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

  A. It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.
  B. It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.
  C. It manages applications accessible on endpoints.
  D. It reduces the need for network security.
  B. It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

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  Explanation/Reference:

• Question 137:

  Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

  A. Elastic scalability
  B. 5G
  C. External dynamic lists
  D. Log export
  A. Elastic scalability

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  Explanation/Reference:

• Question 138:

  Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

  A. 4G/LTE
  B. VLF
  C. L-band
  D. 2G/2.5G
  C. L-band

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  Explanation/Reference:

  2G/2.5G: 2G connectivity remains a prevalent and viable IoT connectivity option due to the low cost of 2G modules, relatively long battery life, and large installed base of 2G sensors and M2M applications.

  3G: IoT devices with 3G modules use either Wideband Code Division Multiple Access (W-CDMA) or Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA+ and Advanced HSPA+) to achieve data transfer rates of 384Kbps to 168Mbps. 4G/Long-Term

  Evolution (LTE): 4G/LTE networks enable real-time IoT use cases, such as autonomous vehicles, with 4G LTE Advanced Pro delivering speeds in excess of 3Gbps and less than 2 milliseconds of latency.

  5G: 5G cellular technology provides significant enhancements compared to 4G/LTE networks and is backed by ultra-low latency, massive connectivity and scalability for IoT devices, more efficient use of the licensed spectrum, and network

  slicing for application traffic prioritization.

• Question 139:

  How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

  A. DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment
  B. DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment
  C. DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline
  D. DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline
  C. DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

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  Explanation/Reference:

  DevSecOps takes the concept behind DevOps that developers and IT teams should work together closely, instead of separately, throughout software delivery and extends it to include security and integrate automated checks into the full CI/ CD pipeline. The integration of the CI/CD pipeline takes care of the problem of security seeming like an outside force and instead allows developers to maintain their usual speed without compromising data security

• Question 140:

  In a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) environment, which two data exposures result from well-intentioned end users? (Choose two.)

  A. Malicious Outsider
  B. Promiscuous Share
  C. Ghost Share
  D. Malicious Insider
  B. Promiscuous Share
  D. Malicious Insider

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  Explanation/Reference: