Palo Alto Networks PCCET Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Palo Alto Networks PCCET Online Questions & Answers

• Question 91:

  Which option describes the "selective network security virtualization" phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

  A. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled
  B. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server
  C. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol
  D. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced
  A. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Selective network security virtualization: Intra-host communications and live migrations are architected at this phase. All intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled to ensure that traffic between VMs at different trust levels is intermediated either by an on- box, virtual security appliance or by an off-box, physical security appliance.

• Question 92:

  Which two malware types can replicate themselves? (Choose two.)

  A. Worm
  B. Virus
  C. Ransomware
  D. Trojan horse
  A. Worm
  B. Virus

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Reference: https://www.spamlaws.com/malware-types.html#:~:text=Though%20closely%20related%2C%20worms%20and,be%20a%20corporation's%20worst%20nightmare

• Question 93:

  In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

  A. Computer
  B. Switch
  C. Infrastructure
  D. Cloud
  D. Cloud

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Cortex XDR breaks the silos of traditional detection and response by natively integrating network, endpoint, and cloud data to stop sophisticated attacks

• Question 94:

  Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

  A. UDP
  B. MAC
  C. SNMP
  D. NFS
  C. SNMP

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  Explanation/Reference:

  Application (Layer 7 or L7): This layer identifies and establishes availability of communication partners, determines resource availability, and synchronizes communication. Presentation (Layer 6 or L6): This layer provides coding and conversion functions (such as data representation, character conversion, data compression, and data encryption) to ensure that data sent from the Application layer of one system is compatible with the Application layer of the receiving system. Session (Layer 5 or L5): This layer manages communication sessions (service requests and service responses) between networked systems, including connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release. Transport (Layer 4 or L4): This layer provides transparent, reliable data transport and end-to-end transmission control.

• Question 95:

  In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

  A. the network is large
  B. the network is small
  C. the network has low bandwidth requirements
  D. the network needs backup routes
  A. the network is large

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  Explanation/Reference:

  A static routing protocol requires that routes be created and updated manually on a router or other network device. If a static route is down, traffic can't be automatically rerouted unless an alternate route has been configured. Also, if the route is congested, traffic can't be automatically rerouted over the less congested alternate route. Static routing is practical only in very small networks or for very limited, special-case routing scenarios (for example, a destination that's used as a backup route or is reachable only via a single router). However, static routing has low bandwidth requirements (routing information isn't broadcast across the network) and some built-in security (users can route only to destinations that are specified in statically defined routes).

• Question 96:

  What are three benefits from leveraging Cortex XSIAM for threat intelligence management? (Choose three.)

  A. Gain confidence in incident response decisions
  B. Automate repetitive daily indicator management tasks
  C. Get instant ROI from existing threat intel feeds
  D. Easier troubleshooting because it is open-source
  E. Reduce analyst fatigue and turnover
  A. Gain confidence in incident response decisions
  B. Automate repetitive daily indicator management tasks
  E. Reduce analyst fatigue and turnover

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  Explanation/Reference:

• Question 97:

  An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts? Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses Subnet 2: 25 host addresses Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

  A. 192.168.6.168/30
  B. 192.168.6.0/25
  C. 192.168.6.160/29
  D. 192.168.6.128/27
  B. 192.168.6.0/25

• Question 98:

  During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

  A. Frame
  B. Segment
  C. Packet
  D. Data
  C. Packet

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  Explanation/Reference:

  The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.

• Question 99:

  Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

  A. Case management
  B. Integrations
  C. Ticketing system
  D. Playbooks
  D. Playbooks

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  Explanation/Reference:

• Question 100:

  For which three platforms does the SASE solution provide consistent security services and access? (Choose three.)

  A. On-site
  B. Software as a service (SaaS)
  C. Private cloud
  D. Public cloud
  E. On-premises
  B. Software as a service (SaaS)
  C. Private cloud
  D. Public cloud

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  Explanation/Reference: