NCLEX NCLEX-PN Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

NCLEX NCLEX-PN Online Questions & Answers

• Question 881:

  Number the choices below to reflect the correct sequence for using a fire extinguisher.

  

  A. D, A, B, C
  B. D, B, A, C
  C. D, A, C, B
  D. A, D, B, C
  A. D, A, B, C

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  The correct sequence of action for using a fire extinguished is easily remembered by keeping the PASS acronym in mind. P is pulling out the pin to activate the fire extinguisher; A is to aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire; S is to squeeze the handle to discharge the contents of the fire extinguisher; and S is sweep back and forth over the base of the fire while discharging the contents.

• Question 882:

  When caring for a patient with known IV drug use, which statement should the nurse discuss to highlight the risk factors of this behavior?

  A. The use of these drugs can increase the risk of contracting diseases due to immunosuppression.
  B. The risk of contracting and/or spreading blood borne pathogens such as HIV, which can progress to AIDS, is a huge risk factor with this activity.
  C. Drug use can lead to unsafe sex practices, increasing the risk of the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases.
  D. IV drug use can lead to skin infections at the injection sites and poor health.
  B. The risk of contracting and/or spreading blood borne pathogens such as HIV, which can progress to AIDS, is a huge risk factor with this activity.

• Question 883:

  Which of the following is best for a client who has difficulty swallowing and chokes frequently?

  A. A liquid diet.
  B. Tilting the head back when swallowing.
  C. Tucking the chin in when swallowing.
  D. Following each bite with a drink of water.
  C. Tucking the chin in when swallowing.

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  The client should tuck the chin when swallowing rather than tilting the head back. Thin fluids and liquids, like water, are thickened prior to drinking to prevent chocking. Tilting the head back is dangerous.

• Question 884:

  Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a "need to know"? (Choose all that apply.)

  A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient.
  B. Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient.
  C. The Vice President for Nursing who is investigating a patient fall.
  D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient.
  E. A quality assurance nurse collecting data for a performance improvement activity.
  A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient.
  C. The Vice President for Nursing who is investigating a patient fall.
  D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient.
  E. A quality assurance nurse collecting data for a performance improvement activity.

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  Medical records are restricted to only those who have a "need to know". Student nurses caring for a particular patient have the "need to know" so they can properly care for their patient assignment. The Vice President for Nursing, as an administrator, who is investigating a patient fall also has a "need to know" because they are collecting data and information to prevent future falls. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient have the "need to know" so they can provide care to the patient; and the quality assurance nurse has the "need to know" because they are collecting data for a performance improvement activity. No nurse, including registered nurses, are allowed access to all or part of a patient's medical record unless they have a "need to know" because they are providing either direct or indirect care to the patient.

• Question 885:

  A 64-year-old Alzheimer's patient has exhibited excessive cognitive decline resulting in harmful behaviors. The physician orders restraints to be placed on the patient. Which of the following is the appropriate procedure?

  A. Secure the restraints to the bed rails on all extremities.
  B. Notify the physician that restraints have been placed properly.
  C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.
  D. Position the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle.
  C. Communicate with the patient and family the need for restraints.

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  Explanation Explanation/Reference:Both the family and the patient should have the need for restraints explained to them.

• Question 886:

  The NSAID that is comparable to morphine in efficacy is __________.

  A. Feldene
  B. Stodal
  C. Toradol
  D. Elavil
  C. Toradol

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  Explanation Explanation/Reference:Toradol is the first injectable NSAID equal to morphine in efficacy.

• Question 887:

  Which of the following motions is identified with the corresponding action?

  (Action ?Turning palm of hand over to face in the anterior direction, dorsum of the hand is pointed downward toward the floor.)

  A. Pronation
  B. Supination
  C. Abduction
  D. Adduction
  B. Supination

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  Explanation Explanation/Reference:Supination ?"Holding a bowl of soup in your hand."

• Question 888:

  Diabetes insipidus is the result of __________.

  A. a diet high in sugar and carbohydrates
  B. a complicated pregnancy
  C. a disorder of the pancreas
  D. a disorder of the pituitary gland
  D. a disorder of the pituitary gland

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  Diabetes insipidus is the result of a pituitary gland disorder although it can also occur as the result of a brain infection or tumor as well as a closed head trauma that impacts on the pituitary gland. Diabetes insipidus is a lack of antidiuretic hormone secretion from the pituitary gland and the signs and symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, hypernatremia and dehydration.

• Question 889:

  Which of these is not one of the items in the APGAR Score?

  A. skin color
  B. muscle tone
  C. respiratory rate
  D. reflex irritability
  C. respiratory rate

• Question 890:

  When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?

  A. low-back pain
  B. urinary frequency
  C. GI distress
  D. malaise
  B. urinary frequency

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  Explanation Explanation/Reference:Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy because it is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy and is caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are no problems. Frequency returns in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. A UTI has the symptoms of frequency, back pain, supra pubic discomfort, and malaise and is diagnosed by laboratory findings.