Test Prep MCQS Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

Test Prep MCQS Online Questions & Answers

• Question 31:

  A middle aged woman has some weakness of hand after an injury. Which vertebra will be the lowest to be x-ray to diagnosis the injury?

  A. C7/T1
  B. C5/C6
  C. c8/T1
  D. C6/C7
  A. C7/T1

• Question 32:

  Patient with severe depression on SSRIs. When it will begin to start work?

  A. 4-5 weeks
  B. 1-2 weeks
  C. 3-4 weeks
  D. 2-3 weeks
  C. 3-4 weeks

• Question 33:

  A lady developed breast abscess after delivery. What is the most likely organism?

  A. GBS
  B. Staph albus
  C. Strep pyogenes
  D. Staph aureus
  D. Staph aureus

• Question 34:

  A terminally ill with metastatic carcinoma presents with dysphagia and difficulty in swallowing. What is possible treatment?

  A. Analgesic
  B. Cotrimazole
  C. PO fluconazole
  D. Nystatin suspension
  E. Amphotericin B IV
  C. PO fluconazole

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  PO fluconazole. Treatment of carcinoma can predispose to development of esophageal candidiasis as follows: Oral fluconazole (200 ?400mg) daily for 14 to 21 days (if needed IV fluconazole can also be given).

• Question 35:

  A 45-year-old woman was texting while driving when she lost control of her car and ran into a tree. She is complaining of chest pain; physical examination reveals pallor, and cool extremities, a heart rate of 120 bpm, and JVD. Blood pressure is 80/40. Chest x-ray reveals 3 broken ribs over the left side of the chest.

  Which of the following is the most likely type of shock?

  A. Hypovolemic shock
  B. Cardiogenic shock
  C. Septic shock
  D. Neurogenic shock
  B. Cardiogenic shock

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  Cardiogenic shock is most likely secondary to pericardial tamponade. The patient's car injury caused blood to collect in the pericardial sac, leading to right ventricular diastolic collapse and impaired filling. The broken ribs are the source of injury to the pericardium. Hypovolemic shock is unlikely, as the patient cannot lose that much volume into her pericardium. Neurogenic shock would have hyperreflexia and up going toes. Septic shock is unlikely as there is no fever and chills.

• Question 36:

  60 year's old patient has only HTN best drug to start with:

  A. Beta blocker
  B. ACEI
  C. Diuretics
  D. ARB
  E. Alpha blocker
  C. Diuretics

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  Antihypertensive therapy has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in older patients with elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressures. This benefit appears to persist in patients older than 80 years, but less than one third of older patients have adequate blood pressure control. Systolic blood pressure is the most important predictor of cardiovascular disease. Blood pressure measurement in older persons should include an evaluation for orthostatic hypotension. Low-dose thiazide diuretics remain first-line therapy for older patients. Beta blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers are second-line medications that should be selected based on comorbidities and risk factors.

• Question 37:

  A man comes to the clinic having had a painless, firm genital lesion for the last several days. The inguinal adenopathy is painless. What is the most accurate diagnostic test?

  A. VDRL
  B. RPR
  C. Darkfield microscopic exam
  C. Darkfield microscopic exam

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  The VDRL and RPR are only 75 percent sensitive in primary syphilis. There is a false negative rate of 25 percent. The most accurate test in primary syphilis is dark field microscopy.

• Question 38:

  A 2-days baby's mother is worried about the baby's hearing. Mother has a history of conductive hearing lo most appropriate test?

  A. MRI
  B. Fork test
  C. CT scan
  D. Reassure
  E. Brain stem evoked response
  E. Brain stem evoked response

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  Brain stem evoked response. A BAER (brainstem auditory evoked response) test can help to diagnose nervous system disorders, especially in newborns, young children, and others who may not be able to participate hearing test.

• Question 39:

  A 28-weeks pregnant woman presents with uterine bleeding after sexual intercourse. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

  A. Placental abruption
  B. Missed abortion
  C. Placental previa
  D. Ectropion
  D. Ectropion

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  Post coital bleeding can be either placenta previa or cervical ectropion. But as ectropion pregnancy so it is the option here.

• Question 40:

  A patient presents with fever, dry cough and breathlessness. He is tachypneic but chest is clear Oxygen saturation is normal at rest but drops on exercise. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

  A. Pneumocystis carinii infection
  B. Cryptococcal infection
  C. Toxoplasma abscess
  D. CMV infection
  E. Candida infection
  E. Candida infection

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  In conclusion, our data confirm that patients with diabetes have excess mortality compared with patients with diabetes, and that men with diabetes suffer from a higher mortality rate than women. These observations are younger patients. Cardiovascular disease could be the most common cause of death in diabetic by cancer. Whether our diabetic patients suffer from a lesser proportion of death than that cardiovascular disease, as seen in the U.S. or the U.K., requires further investigation.

  Reference: http://care.diabetesjournals.org/content/27/7/1605.long