CompTIA JK0-022 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA JK0-022 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 921:

  A security administrator wants to deploy security controls to mitigate the threat of company employees' personal information being captured online. Which of the following would BEST serve this purpose?

  A. Anti-spyware
  B. Antivirus
  C. Host-based firewall
  D. Web content filter
  A. Anti-spyware

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  Spyware monitors a user's activity and uses network protocols to reports it to a third party without the user's knowledge. This is usually accomplished using a tracking cookie. Incorrect Answers: B: Antivirus software is used to protect systems against viruses, which are a form of malicious code designed to spread from one system to another, consuming network resources. Computer viruses do not capture user information. C: A host-based firewall is installed on a client system and is used to protect the client system from the activities of the user as well as from communication from the network or Internet. D: Web content filtering is a form of content inspection in which the content of a web page is inspected against a blacklist of unwanted terms. This would not prevent user information being captured online. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 161-162, 300 Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 19,

• Question 922:

  A network administrator has purchased two devices that will act as failovers for each other. Which of the following concepts does this BEST illustrate?

  A. Authentication
  B. Integrity
  C. Confidentiality
  D. Availability
  D. Availability

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  Failover refers to the process of reconstructing a system or switching over to other systems when a failure is detected. In the case of a server, the server switches to a redundant server when a fault is detected. This strategy allows service to continue uninterrupted until the primary server can be restored. In the case of a network, this means processing switches to another network path in the event of a network failure in the primary path. This means availability. Incorrect Answers: A: Authentication is used to verify that a person who sent the message is actually who they say they are. B: Integrity means that data cannot be tampered with or altered without detection. C: Confidentiality means that data retains its privacy. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 32

• Question 923:

  Which of the following is BEST utilized to identify common misconfigurations throughout the enterprise?

  A. Vulnerability scanning
  B. Port scanning
  C. Penetration testing
  D. Black box
  A. Vulnerability scanning

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  A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates. A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security. Incorrect Answers: B: A port scanner is typically a software application used to scan a system such as a computer or firewall for open ports. A malicious user would attempt to access a system through an open port. A security administrator would compare the list of open ports against a list of ports that need to be open so that unnecessary ports can be closed thus reducing the vulnerability of the system. A port scanner is not used for a general scan of common misconfigurations on multiple systems. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. C: Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration testing is used to test the security controls on an individual system; it is not used for a general scan of common misconfigurations on multiple systems. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. D: Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings. This method of test can be applied to virtually every level of software testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance. It typically comprises most if not all higher level testing, but can also dominate unit testing as well. Black-box testing is used for testing applications. It is not used to common misconfigurations in a network. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. References: http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/V/vulnerability_scanning.html http://searchsoftwarequality.techtarget.com/definition/penetration-testing

• Question 924:

  Why would a technician use a password cracker?

  A. To look for weak passwords on the network
  B. To change a user's passwords when they leave the company
  C. To enforce password complexity requirements
  D. To change users passwords if they have forgotten them
  A. To look for weak passwords on the network

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  A password cracker will be able to expose weak passwords on a network. Incorrect Answers: B: Changing users' passwords when they leave the company is not advisable why not just eliminate their passwords to mitigate risk. C: Enforcing password complexity would make the password stronger and not easily crackable. D: If users happen to forget their passwords, then they should request a change in password rather than a technician using a password cracker. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 407

• Question 925:

  Which of the following concepts is used by digital signatures to ensure integrity of the data?

  A. Non-repudiation
  B. Hashing
  C. Transport encryption
  D. Key escrow
  B. Hashing

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  Most digital signature implementations also use a hash to verify that the message has not been altered, intentionally or accidently, in transit. Incorrect Answers: A: Regarding digital security, the cryptographical meaning and application of non-repudiation shifts to mean: * A service that provides proof of the integrity and origin of data. * An authentication that can be asserted to be genuine with high assurance. B: Digital signatures are not implemented through transport encryption. D: Key escrow addresses the possibility that a third party may need to access keys. Under the conditions of key escrow, the keys needed to encrypt/decrypt data are held in an escrow account (think of the term as it relates to home mortgages) and made available if that third party requests them. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 249, 255, 261, 262

• Question 926:

  Which of the following concepts is BEST described as developing a new chain of command in the event of a contingency?

  A. Business continuity planning
  B. Continuity of operations
  C. Business impact analysis
  D. Succession planning
  D. Succession planning

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  Succession planning outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open. By identifying key roles that cannot be left unfilled and associating internal employees who can step into these roles, you can groom those employees to make sure that they are up to speed when it comes time for them to fill those positions. Incorrect Answers: A: Business continuity planning is the process of implementing policies, controls, and procedures to counteract the effects of losses, outages, or failures of critical business processes. B: Continuity of operations refers to risk management best practices rather than developing a new chain of command as a contingency plan. C: A business impact analysis is more concerned with evaluating the processes in the organization as it bears on business continuity. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 454

• Question 927:

  A small business needs to incorporate fault tolerance into their infrastructure to increase data availability. Which of the following options would be the BEST solution at a minimal cost?

  A. Clustering
  B. Mirrored server
  C. RAID
  D. Tape backup
  C. RAID

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  RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID can achieve fault tolerance using software which can be done using the existing hardware and software. Incorrect Answers: A: Anytime you connect multiple computers to work/act together as a single server, it is known as clustering. Clustered systems utilize parallel processing (improving performance and availability) and add redundancy (but also add costs). B: Mirrored server implies that you have a mirror / duplicate of the server which will provide you with 100 % redundancy, but it does not represent the least cost option. D: Tape Backup will also incur costs and is means for backing up data to mitigate a loss. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 34, 234, 235

• Question 928:

  After analyzing and correlating activity from multiple sensors, the security administrator has determined that a group of very well organized individuals from an enemy country is responsible for various attempts to breach the company network, through the use of very sophisticated and targeted attacks. Which of the following is this an example of?

  A. Privilege escalation
  B. Advanced persistent threat
  C. Malicious insider threat
  D. Spear phishing
  B. Advanced persistent threat

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  Definitions of precisely what an APT is can vary widely, but can best be summarized by their named requirements: Advanced Criminal operators behind the threat utilize the full spectrum of computer intrusion technologies and techniques. While individual components of the attack may not be classed as particularly "advanced" (e.g. malware components generated from commonly available DIY construction kits, or the use of easily procured exploit materials), their operators can typically access and develop more advanced tools as required. They combine multiple attack methodologies and tools in order to reach and compromise their target. Persistent Criminal operators give priority to a specific task, rather than opportunistically seeking immediate financial gain. This distinction implies that the attackers are guided by external entities. The attack is conducted through continuous monitoring and interaction in order to achieve the defined objectives. It does not mean a barrage of constant attacks and malware updates. In fact, a "low-and-slow" approach is usually more successful. Threat means that there is a level of coordinated human involvement in the attack, rather than a mindless and automated piece of code. The criminal operators have a specific objective and are skilled, motivated, organized and well funded. Incorrect Answers: A: Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user. The attack described in the question is not an example of privilege escalation. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. C: A malicious insider threat as the name suggests is carried out by an insider. In this question, the attackers are in an enemy country. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. D: Spear phishing is an e-mail spoofing fraud attempt that targets a specific organization, seeking unauthorized access to confidential data. As with the e-mail messages used in regular phishing expeditions, spear phishing messages appear to come from a trusted source. Phishing messages usually appear to come from a large and well-known company or Web site with a broad membership base, such as eBay or PayPal. In the case of spear phishing, however, the apparent source of the e-mail is likely to be an individual within the recipient's own company and generally someone in a position of authority. The attack described in the question is not an example of spear phishing. Therefore, this answer is incorrect. References: https://www.damballa.com/advanced-persistent-threats-a-brief-description/ http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/spear-phishing

• Question 929:

  HOTSPOT

  For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the dropdown choices.

  Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

  Hot Area:

  

  

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  References:

  Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 282, 285.

  http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Password_authentication_protocol#Working_cycle http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Smart_card#Security

• Question 930:

  A security administrator has just finished creating a hot site for the company. This implementation relates to which of the following concepts?

  A. Confidentiality
  B. Availability
  C. Succession planning
  D. Integrity
  B. Availability

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  Simply making sure that the data and systems are available for authorized users is what availability is all about. Data backups, redundant systems, and disaster recovery plans all support availability. And creating a hot site is about providing availability. Incorrect Answers: A: Confidentiality means preventing unauthorized users from accessing data. Passwords, hard drive encryption, and access control all support confidentiality. C: Succession planning outlines those internal to the company who has the ability to step into position when they open. D: Integrity means ensuring that data has not been altered. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 414, 443-444, 454