CompTIA JK0-022 Online Practice
Questions and Exam Preparation
JK0-022 Exam Details
Exam Code
:JK0-022
Exam Name
:CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification
:CompTIA Security+
Vendor
:CompTIA
Total Questions
:1149 Q&As
Last Updated
:Feb 05, 2025
CompTIA JK0-022 Online Questions &
Answers
Question 711:
To ensure compatibility with their flagship product, the security engineer is tasked to recommend an encryption cipher that will be compatible with the majority of third party software and hardware vendors. Which of the following should be recommended?
A. SHA B. MD5 C. Blowfish D. AES
D. AES AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) has been adopted by the U.S. government and is now used worldwide. It supersedes the Data Encryption Standard (DES) which was published in 1977. The algorithm described by AES is a symmetric-key algorithm, meaning the same key is used for both encrypting and decrypting the data. AES is used to encrypt data, not to verify data integrity. Incorrect Answers: A: The first version of SHA is from 1993. SHA is not as widespread as AES. The Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) was designed to ensure the integrity of a message. SHA is a one-way hash that provides a hash value that can be used with an encryption protocol. This algorithm produces a 160-bit hash value. B: MD5 is from 1992. Usage of MD5 is not as widespread as that of AES. The Message Digest Algorithm (MD) also creates a hash value and uses a one-way hash. The hash value is used to help maintain integrity. There are several versions of MD; the most common are MD5, MD4, and MD2. C: Compared to AES Blowfish is newer and much less widespread. Blowfish is an encryption system invented by a team led by Bruce Schneier that performs a 64- bit block cipher at very fast speeds. It is a symmetric block cipher that can use variable-length keys (from 32 bits to 448 bits). The Message Digest Algorithm (MD) creates a hash value and uses a one-way hash. The hash value is used to help maintain integrity. There are several versions of MD; the most common are MD5, MD4, and MD2. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 250, 251, 255-256
Question 712:
ABC company has a lot of contractors working for them. The provisioning team does not always get notified that a contractor has left the company. Which of the following policies would prevent contractors from having access to systems in the event a contractor has left?
A. Annual account review B. Account expiration policy C. Account lockout policy D. Account disablement
B. Account expiration policy Explanation Account expiration is a secure feature to employ on user accounts for temporary workers, interns, or consultants. It automatically disables a user account or causes the account to expire at a specific time and on a specific day. Incorrect Answers: A: An account review would conclude if users have been suitably completing their work tasks or whether there have been failed and/or successful attempts at violating company policies or the law. It would not prevent contractors from having access to systems in the event a contractor has left. C: Account lockout automatically disables an account due to repeated failed log on attempts. It would not prevent contractors from having access to systems in the event a contractor has left. D: The question states: "The provisioning team does not always get notified that a contractor has left the company". Therefore, disabling an account needs to happen automatically. The account expiration policy meets the requirements. References: Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 292- 294.
Question 713:
Matt, a developer, recently attended a workshop on a new application. The developer installs the new application on a production system to test the functionality. Which of the following is MOST likely affected?
A. Application design B. Application security C. Initial baseline configuration D. Management of interfaces
C. Initial baseline configuration The initial baseline configuration of a computer system is an agreed configuration for the computer. For example, the initial baseline configuration will list what operating system he computer will run, what software applications and patches will be installed and what configuration settings should be applied to the system. In this question, we are installing a new software application on a server. After the installation of the software, the "configuration" of the server (installed software, settings etc) is now different from the initial baseline configuration. Incorrect Answers: A: Installing a new application on a production system will not affect the application design. We are not changing the design of the application by installing it on the server. This answer is therefore incorrect. B: Installing a new application on a production system will not affect the application security. We are not changing the security configuration of the application by installing it on the server. This answer is therefore incorrect. D: Installing a new application on a production system will not affect the management of the interfaces. The interfaces will continue to be managed as they were before. This answer is therefore incorrect.
Question 714:
A malicious person gained access to a datacenter by ripping the proximity badge reader off the wall near the datacenter entrance. This caused the electronic locks on the datacenter door to release because the:
A. badge reader was improperly installed. B. system was designed to fail open for life-safety. C. system was installed in a fail closed configuration. D. system used magnetic locks and the locks became demagnetized.
B. system was designed to fail open for life-safety. It describes a design the lock to fail open for life safety, causing the door to stay open when power is lost - in this case the proximity badge reader was ripped off the wall. Incorrect Answers: A: Upon use of the proximity reader and granting access to the room it can be assumed that installation was correct. C: A fail-close design will keep the lock engaged. D: The question mentions that the proximity reader was ripped off the entrance wall and not magnetic locks that became demagnetized. References: http://www.nortechcontrol.com/access-control/what-is-access-control/access-control-in- education/what-are-proximity-readers.aspx Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 367 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fail-safe
Question 715:
An incident response team member needs to perform a forensics examination but does not have the required hardware. Which of the following will allow the team member to perform the examination with minimal impact to the potential evidence?
A. Using a software file recovery disc B. Mounting the drive in read-only mode C. Imaging based on order of volatility D. Hashing the image after capture
B. Mounting the drive in read-only mode Mounting the drive in read-only mode will prevent any executable commands from being executed. This is turn will have the least impact on potential evidence using the drive in question. Incorrect Answers: A: A software file recovery disk will restore whatever was changed or modified to its operational saved state and thus tamper with evidence which is contrary to what is required from the team member. C: Images are used to restore operating systems and applications because it involves snapshots of what exists on the hardware. The team member is supposed to perform a forensic procedure with that very same hardware. D: Hashing the image after capture will preserve that which exists at the moment and in this case the team member must run a forensic procedure using the very same hardware. References: Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 453-454, 461
Question 716:
The server administrator has noted that most servers have a lot of free disk space and low memory utilization. Which of the following statements will be correct if the server administrator migrates to a virtual server environment?
A. The administrator will need to deploy load balancing and clustering. B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment. C. The administrator will not be able to add a test virtual environment in the data center. D. Servers will encounter latency and lowered throughput issues.
B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment. Migrating to a virtual server environment reduces cost by eliminating the need to purchase, manage, maintain and power physical machines. The fewer physical machines you have, the less money it costs. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: Virtualization allows you to manage and maintain servers as discrete software components, rapidly create new servers from pre-defined and configured images, and reallocate resources to optimize performance and stability. Virtual servers are contained entirely as a software object, so you can easily and seamlessly migrate them to other physical hardware whenever necessary. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/gg602472.aspx
Question 717:
A security analyst has been tasked with securing a guest wireless network. They recommend the company use an authentication server but are told the funds are not available to set this up. Which of the following BEST allows the analyst to restrict user access to approved devices?
A. Antenna placement B. Power level adjustment C. Disable SSID broadcasting D. MAC filtering
D. MAC filtering A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices. Incorrect Answers: A, B: This will increase or decrease signal strength and availability, but will not restrict user access. C: Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to reveal their presence. Removing the presence will affect both authorized and unauthorized devices. References: Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.
Question 718:
An administrator is instructed to disable IP-directed broadcasts on all routers in an organization. Which of the following attacks does this prevent?
A. Pharming B. Smurf C. Replay D. Xmas
B. Smurf
Question 719:
Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Select TWO).
A. Virtual switch B. NAT C. System partitioning D. Access-list E. Disable spanning tree F. VLAN
A. Virtual switch F. VLAN A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. A virtual switch is a software application that allows communication between virtual machines. A combination of the two would best satisfy the question. Incorrect Answers: B: NAT converts the IP addresses of internal systems found in the header of network packets into public IP addresses. C: System partitioning has to do with separating data on a physical hard disk. D: The purpose of an access list is to identify specifically who can enter a facility. E: STP creates a spanning tree within a network of connected layer-2 bridges (typically Ethernet switches), and disables those links that are not part of the spanning tree. Disabling it will not solve the problem References: http://www.techopedia.com/definition/27140/virtual-switch-vswitch Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 23, 39. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanning_Tree_Protocol
Question 720:
A password history value of three means which of the following?
A. Three different passwords are used before one can be reused. B. A password cannot be reused once changed for three years. C. After three hours a password must be re-entered to continue. D. The server stores passwords in the database for three days.
A. Three different passwords are used before one can be reused. Password History defines the number of unique new passwords a user must use before an old password can be reused. Incorrect Answers: B: Password history is not defined in time, but the number of unique new passwords. C: Password History tracks previous passwords so as to prevent password reuse, not for the re- entering of a password. D: Password History tracks previous passwords so as to prevent password reuse, it does not deal with password storage. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc956938.aspx Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 293.
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