ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Online Questions & Answers

• Question 131:

  Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

  A. Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.
  B. Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.
  C. Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.
  D. Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing
  A. Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

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  Explanation

  Static testing, such as code reviews and static analysis, is particularly effective at identifying issues related to code structure and modularization. These techniques allow for the inspection of the code without executing it, making it easier to spot problems related to how the code is organized. Dynamic testing, on the other hand, focuses on the execution of code and is better suited for identifying runtime issues but does not easily reveal structural problems. The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 highlights the strengths of static testing in uncovering such structural issue

• Question 132:

  A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on

  1.the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)

  2.the travelling type (as single or in a group)

  3.the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)

  4.the kind of transport (ordinary, express)

  Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?

  A. Statement coverage
  B. State transition testing
  C. Equivalence partitioning
  D. Use case testing
  C. Equivalence partitioning

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  Explanation

  Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Equivalence partitioning is suitable for testing the price computation, as it can identify different partitions based on the passenger type, the travelling type, the distance and the kind of transport. Equivalence partitioning is not statement coverage, which is a technique that measures how many executable statements in a source code are executed by a test suite. Statement coverage is not appropriate for testing the price computation, as it does not consider the input data or output results. Equivalence partitioning is not state transition testing, which is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. State transition testing is not relevant for testing the price computation, as it does not involve any states or transitions. Equivalence partitioning is not use case testing, which is a technique that tests how users interact with a system to achieve a specific goal. Use case testing is not applicable for testing the price computation, as it does not focus on a single function or component. Verified

  References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.

• Question 133:

  Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

  A. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
  B. EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.
  C. EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
  D. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
  A. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

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  Explanation

  Experience based techniques (EBT) are techniques that use the knowledge, intuition and skills of the test engineers to design and execute tests. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies, domains, applications or systems. EBT are not based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques, but rather on their personal judgment and creativity. EBT are not done as a second stage of testing, after nonexperience-based testing took place, but rather as a complementary or alternative approach to other techniques. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in both testing and the application or technological domain, as this can help the test engineer identify potential risks, scenarios or defects. Verified

  References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 48-49.

• Question 134:

  Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

  A. All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find
  B. The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.
  C. All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.
  D. Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process
  C. All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

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  Explanation

  A successful review process involves all participants being trained in the review type and understanding its objectives. This ensures that everyone can contribute effectively and understand what is expected from the review. Proper training helps to identify defects accurately and facilitates constructive feedback, leading to a more efficient and effective review process. Hence, statement C is correct according to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus.

• Question 135:

  From a testing perspective, configuration management

  A. Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.
  B. Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.
  C. Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality
  D. Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.
  B. Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.

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  Explanation

  Configuration management in the context of testing involves the systematic control of changes to the configuration items, including testware such as test scripts, test data, and test environments. It ensures that all changes are tracked and recorded, enabling the version control and management of testware .

  Option A is related to test execution rather than configuration management. Option C describes quality management in a broader sense, not specifically configuration management. Option D is specific to the configuration of tools, not the overall management of testware versions.

• Question 136:

  In order to exercise the right to vote, a person must meet the following requirements:

  1.be able to prove citizenship of the country

  2.be a resident in the administrative unit concerned

  3.have a minimum age of 18 years

  4.no other reasons for exclusion exist

  Create the associated decision table and minimize it so that all conditions are correctly covered. Hint: remember to use the "no other reasons for exclusion exist" condition when creating the decision table.

  How many test cases are at least required to achieve the coverage of all decision rules and what could be the concrete test cases?

  A. 5 test cases. 1 test case where all 4 prerequisites are fulfilled and 4 test cases for exactly one unfulfilled prerequisite each.
  B. 16 test cases. With 4 conditions, each of which can be true or false, there are 16 (2 to the power of 4) possible combinations to be tested.
  C. 2 test cases. 1 test case where all 4 conditions are fulfilled and 1 test case where all 4 conditions are not fulfilled.
  D. 8 test cases. With 4 conditions, each of which can be true or false, there are 8 (4*2) possible combinations to be tested.
  A. 5 test cases. 1 test case where all 4 prerequisites are fulfilled and 4 test cases for exactly one unfulfilled prerequisite each.

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  Explanation

• Question 137:

  Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

  A. An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.
  B. The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.
  C. An inspection can be performed by peers.
  D. An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria
  B. The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

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  Explanation

  An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe.

  The following statement about inspection is not true:

  B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true: A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author. This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest. C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product. D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps: planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step.

  Verified

  References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.

• Question 138:

  Scenario 1 "Happy Tomatoes" (used for questions 20-22):

  An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

  A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the "World Organization for Happy Tomatoes" has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

  When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

  

  Using the equivalence partitioning technique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

  A. {7,10,21,40}
  B. {8,10,25,40}
  C. {7,10,25,29}
  D. {7,10,25,40}
  C. {7,10,25,29}

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

  Equivalence partitioning (EP) divides input values into classes where test cases represent all possible values of each partition. The partitions in this scenario are:

  #7 (too cold # W)

  8-21 (standstill # X)

  22-29 (ideal # Y)

  #30 (too hot # Z)

  Option C ({7,10,25,29}) covers all partitions by selecting representative values:

  7 # Too cold (W)

  10 # Standstill (X)

  25 # Ideal (Y)

  29 # Upper boundary of ideal (Y)

  Other options do not cover all partitions adequately.

  ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.1 ?Equivalence Partitioning

• Question 139:

  Which of the following statements about testing in the context of an agile (iterative-incremental) development model is correct?

  A. Unit test and acceptance test ate the most important tests to make sure that the system works as expected.
  B. Each iteration of testing has to be completely finished before a new Iteration of development starts.
  C. Regression testing is necessary whenever a new Increment Is added to the existing system.
  D. Only certain types of non-functional and explorative testing are performed.
  C. Regression testing is necessary whenever a new Increment Is added to the existing system.

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  Explanation

  In the context of agile (iterative-incremental) development models, testing is integrated into the development process and occurs continuously throughout the lifecycle of the project. Agile testing emphasizes adaptability and the need for

  feedback at various stages of development.

  Option C is correct because regression testing is indeed necessary whenever a new increment is added to the existing system. Agile development often involves frequent changes and additions to the codebase, which can potentially

  introduce new defects into previously tested code. Regression testing ensures that new changes have not adversely affected existing functionality.

  Options A, B, and D present misconceptions about agile testing:

  A is incorrect because, in agile, all types of testing (unit, integration, system, acceptance) are important and occur throughout the iteration, not just unit and acceptance tests. B is incorrect because agile methodologies advocate for continuous

  integration and testing, where development and testing activities overlap and support each other throughout an iteration. D is incorrect because agile methodologies encourage a wide range of testing types, including both functional and nonfunctional, as well as exploratory testing, to ensure a comprehensive quality assessment.

• Question 140:

  Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

  

  Which ONE of the following options organizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy , while considering practical constraints?

  A. {TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}
  B. {TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}
  C. {TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}
  D. {TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}
  D. {TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

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  Explanation

  Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

  Statement coverage strategy prioritizes test cases with higher statement coverage first , while resolving dependencies before execution.

  TC60 (7%) has the highest coverage but depends on REQ 1 , so it should be executed after its dependency is covered .

  TC80 (6%) depends on REQ 2 , so it should be prioritized after TC40 (REQ 2) .

  TC40 (5%) and TC90 (5%) should be executed early.

  Lower coverage test cases (TC10, TC70, TC30, TC20) should come last.

  Thus, the correct order is {TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20} (D) .

  ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.3 ?White-Box Testing Techniques