CompTIA CV0-003 Online Practice Questions and Exam Preparation

CompTIA CV0-003 Online Questions & Answers

• Question 311:

  A company had a system compromise, and the engineering team resolved the issue after 12 hours. Which of the following information will MOST likely be requested by the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to understand the issue and its resolution?

  A. A root cause analysis
  B. Application documentation
  C. Acquired evidence
  D. Application logs
  A. A root cause analysis

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  Explanation

  A root cause analysis is what will most likely be requested by the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to understand the issue and its resolution after a system compromise that was resolved by the engineering team after 12 hours. A root cause

  analysis is a technique of investigating and identifying the underlying or fundamental cause or reason for an incident or issue that affects or may affect the normal operation or performance of a system or service. A root cause analysis can

  help to understand the issue and its resolution by providing information such as:

  What happened: This describes what occurred during the incident or issue, such as symptoms, effects, impacts, etc.

  Why it happened: This explains why the incident or issue occurred, such as triggers, factors, conditions, etc.

  How it was resolved: This details how the incident or issue was fixed or mitigated, such as actions, steps, methods, etc.

  How it can be prevented: This suggests how the incident or issue can be avoided or reduced in the future, such as recommendations, improvements, changes, etc.

• Question 312:

  A company has an SLA of 15ms for storage latency.

  

  Given the above metrics, which of the following is the MOST appropriate change to the environment?

  A. Add computing nodes and data nodes on the storage side.
  B. Add more storage shelves to the current array.
  C. Enable compression on the storage side.
  D. Enable deduplication on the storage side.
  C. Enable compression on the storage side.

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  Explanation

• Question 313:

  A cloud architect is receiving complaints from VDI users overseas about slowness even though the remote office has Gigabit internet. Which of the following will most likely solve the issue?

  A. Increasing bandwidth
  B. Enabling compression
  C. Lowering latency
  D. Adding redundancy
  C. Lowering latency

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  Explanation

• Question 314:

  An organization is using multiple SaaS-based business applications, and the systems administrator is unable to monitor and control the use of these subscriptions. The administrator needs to implement a solution that will help the organization apply security policies and monitor each individual SaaS subscription. Which of the following should be deployed to achieve these requirements?

  A. DLP
  B. CASB
  C. IPS
  D. HIDS
  B. CASB

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  Explanation

  CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is what should be deployed to monitor and control the use of multiple SaaS-based business applications in a cloud environment. SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud service model that provides

  customers with access to software applications hosted on remote servers over a network or internet connection. SaaS can provide customers with convenience, flexibility, and scalability, but it may also introduce security risks such as data

  breaches, leaks, losses, etc., especially if customers have multiple SaaS subscriptions from different providers. CASB is a tool or service that acts as an intermediary between customers and SaaS providers. CASB can help to monitor and

  control the use of multiple SaaS subscriptions by providing features such as:

  Visibility: CASB can provide visibility into what SaaS applications are being used, by whom, when, where, how, etc., as well as identify any unauthorized or suspicious activities. Compliance: CASB can provide compliance with various laws,

  regulations, standards, policies, etc., that apply to SaaS applications and data, such as GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, etc., as well as enforce them using rules or actions. Security:

  CASB can provide security for SaaS applications and data by detecting and preventing any threats or attacks, such as malware, phishing, ransomware, etc., as well as protecting them using encryption, authentication, authorization, etc.

• Question 315:

  A systems administrator is implementing a file storage solution that stores files using integrity verification. Which of the following algorithms is most resistant to collisions?

  A. SHA-2
  B. MD5
  C. CRC32
  D. RIPEMD-160
  A. SHA-2

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  Explanation

• Question 316:

  A systems administrator is about to deploy a new VM to a cloud environment. Which of the following will the administrator MOST likely use to select an address for the VM?

  A. CDN
  B. DNS
  C. NTP
  D. IPAM
  D. IPAM

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  Explanation

  IPAM (IP Address Management) is what the administrator will most likely use to select an address for the new VM that is about to be deployed to a cloud environment. IPAM is a tool or service that allows customers to plan, track, and manage the IP addresses and DNS names of their cloud resources or systems. IPAM can help to select an address for the new VM by providing information such as available IP addresses, IP address ranges, subnets, domains, etc., as well as ensuring that the address is unique and valid.

• Question 317:

  A company has a cloud infrastructure service, and the cloud architect needs to set up a DR site.

  Which of the following should be configured in between the cloud environment and the DR site?

  A. Failback
  B. Playbook
  C. Zoning
  D. Replication
  D. Replication

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  Explanation

  Replication is a process of copying or synchronizing data from one location to another to ensure consistency and availability. Replication can help set up a disaster recovery (DR) site for a cloud environment, as it can enable data backup and recovery in case of a failure or outage in the primary site. Replication can also improve performance and reliability, as it can reduce latency and load by distributing data across multiple sites. Replication should be configured between the cloud environment and the DR site to ensure data protection and continuity.

  References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

• Question 318:

  An organization purchased new servers with GPUs for render farms. The servers have limited CPU resources.

  Which of the following GPU configurations will be the MOST optimal for virtualizing this environment?

  A. Dedicated
  B. Shared
  C. Passthrough
  D. vGPU
  C. Passthrough

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  Explanation

  Passthrough is a type of GPU configuration that allows a VM to directly access a physical GPU on the host system without any virtualization layer or sharing mechanism. Passthrough can provide optimal performance and compatibility for GPU- intensive applications, such as rendering or gaming, as it eliminates any overhead or contention caused by virtualization or sharing. Passthrough is also suitable for servers with limited CPU resources, as it reduces the CPU load and offloads the graphics processing to the GPU. Passthrough is the most optimal GPU configuration for virtualizing a new server with GPUs for render farms.

  References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

• Question 319:

  A systems administrator swapped a failed hard drive on a server with a RAID 5 array. During the RAID resynchronization, a second hard drive failed.

  Which of the following actions will make the server fully operational?

  A. Restart the RAID resynchronization process
  B. Perform a P2V migration of the server
  C. Swap the failed hard drive with a fresh one
  D. Restore the server from backup
  D. Restore the server from backup

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  Explanation

  RAID 5 is a disk array configuration that uses parity to provide fault tolerance and data recovery. RAID 5 can tolerate the failure of one disk, but not two or more disks. If a second disk fails during the resynchronization process, the data on the RAID 5 array will be lost and unrecoverable. The only way to make the server fully operational is to restore the data from a backup source.

• Question 320:

  A VDI administrator is enhancing the existing environment with a feature to allow users to connect devices to virtual workstations. Which of the following types of devices are most likely to be allowed in the upgrade? (Select two).

  A. Display monitors
  B. USB devices
  C. SATA devices
  D. PCIe devices
  E. PCI devices
  F. Printers
  B. USB devices
  F. Printers

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  Explanation

  B. USB devices and

  F. Printers are most likely to be allowed in the upgrade. USB devices are common peripherals that users may want to connect to their virtual workstations, such as flash drives, keyboards, mice, webcams, etc. Printers are also useful devices that users may need to print documents from their virtual desktops. VDI software can support USB redirection and printer redirection to enable these devices to work with virtual workstations12. Display monitors, SATA devices, PCIe devices, and PCI devices are less likely to be allowed in the upgrade, as they are either part of the physical hardware of the end device or the server, or they require direct access to the host system. VDI software typically does not support these types of devices, as they are not compatible with the virtualization layer or the remote display protocol34. 1: What is VDI? | Virtual Desktop Infrastructure | VMware 2: What Is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)? | Microsoft Azure 3: What Is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)? - Cisco 4: Best Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) Software in 2023 | G2