CompTIA CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Questions & Answers

• Question 21:

  An organization is running a database application on a SATA disk, and a customer is experiencing slow performance most of the time.

  Which of the following should be implemented to improve application performance?

  A. Increase disk capacity

  B. Increase the memory and network bandwidth

  C. Upgrade the application

  D. Upgrade the environment and use SSD drives

  Correct Answer: D

  Upgrading the environment and using solid state drives (SSDs) can improve application performance for a database application that is running on a serial advanced technology attachment (SATA) disk and experiencing slow performance most of the time. Upgrading the environment can involve updating or replacing the hardware, software, or network components that support the application to enhance their functionality, capacity, or compatibility. Using SSDs can provide faster and more reliable data access and storage than SATA disks, as they use flash memory instead of spinning disks to store data. SSDs can also reduce latency, power consumption, and heat generation. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4 Reference: https://www.ibm.com/cloud/blog/hard-disk-drive-vs-solid-state-drive

• Question 22:

  A VDI administrator has received reports from the drafting department that rendering is slower than normal. Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST to optimize the performance of the VDI infrastructure?

  A. GPU

  B. CPU

  C. Storage

  D. Memory

  Correct Answer: A

  Checking the GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is the first thing that the VDI administrator should do to optimize the performance of the VDI infrastructure for rendering tasks. GPU is a specialized hardware device that accelerates graphics processing and rendering. GPU can improve the user experience and performance of VDI applications that require intensive graphics processing, such as drafting, gaming, video editing, etc.

• Question 23:

  An organization is required to set a custom registry key on the guest operating system.

  Which of the following should the organization implement to facilitate this requirement?

  A. A configuration management solution

  B. A log and event monitoring solution

  C. A file integrity check solution

  D. An operating system ACL

  Correct Answer: A

  A configuration management solution is a type of tool or system that automates and standardizes the configuration and deployment of cloud resources or services according to predefined policies or rules. A configuration management solution can help set a custom registry key on the guest operating system in an IaaS instance, as it can apply the desired registry setting to one or more virtual machines (VMs) without manual intervention or scripting. A configuration management solution can also help maintain consistency, compliance, and security of cloud configurations by monitoring and enforcing the desired state. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

• Question 24:

  An update is being deployed to a web application, and a systems administrator notices the cloud SQL database has stopped running. The VM is responding to pings, and there were not any configuration changes scheduled for the VM. Which of the following should the administrator check NEXT?

  A. Logs on the VM

  B. Firewall on the VM

  C. Memory on the VM

  D. vGPU performance on the VM

  Correct Answer: A

  Checking the logs on the VM is the next step that the administrator should take if the cloud SQL database has stopped running after an update deployment. Logs are records of events and activities that occur on a system or application. Logs can provide useful information for troubleshooting and identifying the root cause of an issue. The administrator should look for any errors, warnings, or messages that indicate what happened to the SQL database service and why it stopped running.

• Question 25:

  A marketing team is using a SaaS-based service to send emails to large groups of potential customers. The internally managed CRM system is configured to generate a list of target customers automatically on a weekly basis, and then use that list to send emails to each customer as part of a marketing campaign. Last week, the first email campaign sent emails successfully to 3,000 potential customers. This week, the email campaign attempted to send out 50,000 emails, but only 10,000 were sent.

  Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for not sending all the emails?

  A. API request limit

  B. Incorrect billing account

  C. Misconfigured auto-scaling

  D. Bandwidth limitation

  Correct Answer: A

  An API request limit is a restriction on the number of requests that can be made to a web service or application programming interface (API) within a certain time period. API request limits are often used by SaaS-based services to control the usage and traffic of their customers and prevent overloading or abuse of their resources. An API request limit can cause a failure to send all the emails if the marketing team exceeds the number of requests allowed by the SaaS-based service in a week. The service may reject or block any requests that go beyond the limit, resulting in fewer emails being sent than expected. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

  Reference: https://developers.google.com/analytics/devguides/config/mgmt/v3/limits-quotas

• Question 26:

  An administrator is performing an in-place upgrade on a quest VM operating system.

  Which of the following can be performed as a quick method to roll back to an earlier state, if necessary?

  A. A configuration file backup

  B. A full backup of the database

  C. A differential backup

  D. A VM-level snapshot

  Correct Answer: D

  Reference: https://cloud.google.com/compute/docs/tutorials/performing-in-place-upgrade-windows-serverA VM-level snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the state and data of a virtual machine (VM). A VM-level snapshot can be used as a quick method to roll back to an earlier state, if necessary, as it can restore the VM to the exact condition it was in when the snapshot was taken. A VM-level snapshot can be useful for performing an in-place upgrade on a guest VM operating system, as it can allow the administrator to revert to the previous operating system version in case of any issues or errors. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

  Reference: https://cloud.google.com/compute/docs/tutorials/performing-in-place-upgrade- windows-server

• Question 27:

  A DevOps administrator is automating an existing software development workflow. The administrator wants to ensure that prior to any new code going into production, tests confirm the new code does not negatively impact existing automation activities.

  Which of the following testing techniques would be BEST to use?

  A. Usability testing

  B. Regression testing

  C. Vulnerability testing

  D. Penetration testing

  Correct Answer: B

  Regression testing is a type of testing that ensures that new code or changes to existing code do not break or degrade the functionality of the software. Regression testing is often used in software development workflows to verify that new features or bug fixes do not introduce new errors or affect the performance of the software. Regression testing can help prevent negative impacts on existing automation activities by checking that the new code is compatible with the existing code and does not cause any unexpected failures or errors. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 19, section 4.1 Reference: https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/regression-testing-tools-and-methods/

• Question 28:

  A systems administrator is building a new virtualization cluster. The cluster consists of five virtual hosts, which each have flash and spinning disks. This storage is shared among all the virtual hosts, where a virtual machine running on one host may store data on another host.

  This is an example of:

  A. a storage area network

  B. a network file system

  C. hyperconverged storage

  D. thick-provisioned disks

  Correct Answer: C

  Hyperconverged storage is a type of storage architecture that combines compute, storage, and network resources into a single system or appliance. Hyperconverged storage uses software-defined storage (SDS) to pool and share the local storage of each node in the cluster, creating a distributed storage system that can be accessed by any node or virtual machine in the cluster. Hyperconverged storage can provide high performance, scalability, and efficiency for virtualized environments. The scenario of building a new virtualization cluster with five virtual hosts that share their flash and spinning disks among all the virtual hosts is an example of hyperconverged storage. References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], page 9, section 1.4

• Question 29:

  Which of the following would be the BEST option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario?

  A. A business continuity plan

  B. Incident response/disaster recovery documentation

  C. A tabletop exercise

  D. A root cause analysis

  Correct Answer: C

  A tabletop exercise is the best option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario. A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who review and discuss their roles and responsibilities in response to an emergency situation or event. A tabletop exercise can help to test and evaluate plans, procedures, policies, training, and communication.

• Question 30:

  An organization has multiple VLANs configured to segregate the network traffic. Following is the breakdown of the network segmentation:

  1.

  Production traffic (10.10.0.0/24)

  2.

  Network backup (10.20.0.0/25)

  3.

  Virtual IP network (10.20.0.128/25)

  The following configuration exists on the server:

  

  The backup administrator observes that the weekly backup is failing for this server. Which of the following commands should the administrator run to identify the issue?

  A. ROUTE PRINT

  B. NETSTAT-A

  C. IPCONFIG /ALL

  D. NET SM

  Correct Answer: A

  ROUTE PRINT is a command that displays the routing table of a system, which shows the destination network, the gateway, the interface, and the metric for each route. ROUTE PRINT can help identify the issue of the weekly backup failing for this server, as it can show if there is a valid route to the network backup segment (10.20.0.0/25) from the production traffic segment (10.10.0.0/24). If there is no route or an incorrect route, the backup will fail to reach the destination. The administrator can use ROUTE PRINT to verify and troubleshoot the routing configuration of the server. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 16, section 3.2

  Reference: https://www.toolbox.com/tech/operating-systems/blogs/using-the-route-print-command-in-windows-7-022310/